Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 111
Questions 1. The factor that most determines drug distribution is:A) vascular perfusion of the tissue or organ.B) salt form.C) drug interactions.D) steady state.2. Metformin (Glucophage) is administered to clients with type II diabetes mellitus. Metformin is an example of:A) an antihyperglycemic agent.B) a hypoglycemic agent.C) an insulin analogue.D) a pancreatic alpha cell stimulant.3. A client was involved in a motor vehicle accident in which the seat belt was not worn. The client is exhibiting crepitus, decreased breath sounds on the left, complains of shortness of breath, and has a respiratory rate of 34/min. Which of the following assessment findings should concern the nurse the most?A) temperature of 102° F and a productive coughB) arterial blood gases (ABGs) with a PaO2 of 92 and PaCO2 of 40 mmHgC) trachea deviating to the rightD) barrel-chested appearance4. A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with Emphysema about the disease process. Which of the following statements best explains the problems associated with emphysema and could be adapted for use in the nurses discussion with the client?A) Hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi caused by an inflammatory response leads to wheezing and tightness in the chest.B) Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.C) Vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema cause a chronic cough and sputum production.D) Chloride is not being transported properly, producing excess absorption of water and sodium, and thick viscous mucus.5. A client admitted to the medical nursing unit has classic symptoms of tuberculosis (TB) and tests positive on the purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test. Several months later, the nurse who cared for the client also tests positive on an annual TB skin test for work. The most likely course of treatment if the chest X-ray (CXR) is negative is to:A) repeat a TB skin test in six months.B) treat the nurse with an anti-infective agent for six months.C) monitor for signs and symptoms within the next year.D) follow up in one year at the next annual physical with CXR only. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: Drugs are distributed via the circulatory system. Adequate perfusion is necessary for distribution of a drug.Choices 2, 3, and 4 are not as dependent on adequate perfusion. Pharmacological Therapies2. Right Answer: AExplanation: This antihyperglycemic agent prevents hyperglycemia by reducing hepatic glucose output and decreasing glucose absorption from the gut. A hypoglycemic drug stimulates insulin production. Metformin is not a type of insulin. Metformin is not a stimulant of any pancreatic cell. Pharmacological Therapies3. Right Answer: CExplanation: A mediastinal shift is indicative of a tension pneumothorax along with the other symptoms in the question.Because the individual was involved in an MVA, assessment is targeted at acute traumatic injuries to the lungs, heart, or chest wall rather than other conditions indicated in the other choices. Choice 1 is common with pneumonia. Values in Choice 2 are not alarming. Choice 4 is typical of someone with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). A tension pneumothorax is a dangerous complication and a medical emergency where entering air cannot escape by the same route and pressure within the pleural cavity increases, resulting in complete collapse of the lung. A mediastinal shift to the unaffected side and a downward displacement of the diaphragm can be observed.Physiological Adaptation4. Right Answer: BExplanation: Larger-than-normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways. Emphysema is a breakdown of the elastin and fiber network of the alveoli where the alveoli enlarge or the walls are destroyed. This alveolar destruction leads to the formation of larger-than-normal air spaces.Emphysema is one of a group of pulmonary diseases of a chronic nature characterized by increased resistance to airflow; the entity is part of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Physiological Adaptation5. Right Answer: BExplanation: Exposure with a positive TB skin test usually requires six months of prophylactic treatment unless contraindicated. The TB skin test should not be repeated; the results will always be positive. A CXR is usually not required annually in the event that the skin test was positive. TB is a type of pneumonia caused by the acid- fast bacillus, mycobacterium tuberculosis, and is contracted by airborne droplets that enter the lungs and multiply in the pulmonary alveoli. Nursing Assessment:(1) Assessment includes symptom analysis of type and progression of symptoms; color, consistency, and amount of sputum; knowledge of the disease; weight pattern; vital signs; description of any pain; palpable lymph nodes; breath sounds; and activity tolerance. (2) Diagnostic tests:a) CXR (shows dense lesions in the upper lobes, enlarged lymph nodes, and formation of large cavities); b) CBC (presence of leukocytosis); c) Fiberoptic bronchoscopy and bronchial washing (for obtaining culture specimens); d) Tuberculin skin test (positive at 5 to 9 mm for clients with abnormal CXR or HIV; positive at 10 to 15 mm for clients with high-risk factors such as intravenous [IV] drug use; residence in a long-term facility, high-incidence country; positive at 15 mm for all other people); e) Three early-morning sputum collections for acid-fast staining, culture and sensitivity positive for M. tuberculosis. Results can take up to 10 days.Physiological Adaptation .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 112
Questions 1. A client who has a known history of cardiac problems and is still smoking enters the clinic complaining of sudden onset of sharp, stabbing pain that intensifies with a deep breath. The pain is occurring on only one side and can be isolated upon general assessment. The nurse concludes that this description is most likely caused by:A) pleurisy.B) pleural effusion.C) atelectasis.D) tuberculosis.2. One drug can alter the absorption of another drug. One drug increases intestinal motility. Which effect does this have on the second drug?A) None; absorption of the second drug is not affected.B) The increased gut motility increases the absorption of the second drug.C) The absorption of the second drug cannot be predicted.D) Less of the second drug is absorbed.3. A client asks a nurse working in a dental office what type of drug the dentist uses to provide anesthesia during the extraction of the clients wisdom teeth. The dentist uses an anesthetic gas, also known as laughing gas. This agent is:A) nitrous oxide.B) nitrogen.C) nitric oxide.D) nitrogen dioxide.4. Why is it often necessary to draw a complete blood count and differential (CBC/differential) when a client is being treated with an antiepileptic drug (AED)?A) The hematocrit is adversely affected because of an increased vascular volume.B) AEDs affect immune modulators increasing the risk of infection.C) AEDs induce white blood cell reduction.D) A side effect of some AEDs is blood dyscrasia.5. To manage time most effectively, the nurse responds to which of the following stimuli first:A) the physician - s loud verbal direction.B) the nursing supervisor who is going to a meeting.C) unit staff leaving on a break.D) the care needs of the returning postoperative client just exiting the elevator. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: Pleurisy is an inflammation of the pleura and is often accompanied by abrupt onset of pain. Symptoms of pleurisy are abrupt pain that is usually unilateral and localized to a specific portion of the chest. The pain is sharp, stabbing, and might radiate to the neck or shoulder. Pressure changes caused by breathing, movement, or coughing intensify the pain. Other symptoms might include fever, cough (dry, hacking), localized tenderness, diminished breath sounds, tachypnea, and pleural friction rub. Physiological Adaptation2. Right Answer: DExplanation: Because most oral mediations are absorbed in the intestine, increased motility moves the second drug through the system faster, thus decreasing the absorption time and the amount taken up by the intestine. Pharmacological Therapies3. Right Answer: AExplanation: Nitrous oxide produces analgesia and is often used for minor surgery and dental procedures that do not require loss of consciousness. It can also produce a mild euphoria in some clients. Nitrogen is a nonmetallic element that constitutes nearly four-fifths of the air by volume, occurring as a colorless, odorless, almost inert diatomic gas, N2, in various minerals and in all proteins. Nitric oxide is a potent vasodilator of vascular smooth muscle. It is produced from L arginine. Nitrogen dioxide is a poisonous brown gas, NO2, often found in smog and automobile exhaust fumes. Pharmacological Therapies4. Right Answer: DExplanation: Some AEDs cause aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia. Choices 1, 2, and 3 are not side effects of AEDs.Pharmacological Therapies5. Right Answer: DExplanation: While many environmental stimuli might compete for attention and time, the client care needs of complex or unstable clients and those requiring assessment and care must take priority. Coordinated Care .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 113
Questions 1. People-related supervisory tasks include all of the following except:A) coaching.B) encouraging.C) target setting.D) rewarding.2. After the client discusses her relationship with her father, the nurse says, 'Tell me whether I am understanding your relationship with your father. You feel dominated and controlled by him?' This is an example of:A) verbalizing the implied.B) seeking consensual validation.C) encouraging evaluation.D) suggesting collaboration.3. The best definition of communication is:A) the sending and receiving of messages.B) the effect of sending verbal messages.C) an ongoing, interactive form of transmitting transactions.D) the use of message variables to send information.4. The nurse supporting a family who has just experienced a sudden and unexpected death needs to know:A) that survivors have greater emotional turmoil and shock than when death is expected.B) that survivors have less emotional turmoil and shock than when death is expected.C) that survivors have the same emotional turmoil and shock as when death is expected.D) that survivors have little emotional turmoil and shock because they were not there.5. A mother has just given birth to a baby who died soon after. The mother has been crying and states, 'I can - t believe this has happened to me. I did everything right during this pregnancy.' How should the nurse respond to this mother?A) Tell her she did nothing wrong; it was God - s will.B) Tell her she can have another baby.C) Tell her that her behavior is not going to solve anything.D) Tell her nothing and let her mourn this loss in the manner she chooses. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: Target-setting is the projection of goals or objectives to be accomplished and is considered to be a task-centered, supervisory responsibility. Coaching, encouraging, rewarding, evaluating, and facilitating are supervisory activities that are people related as they involve direct interaction with those doing the work.Coordinated Care2. Right Answer: BExplanation: Consensual validation is a technique used to check ones understanding of what the client has said. Consensual validation is the process by which people come to agreement about the meaning and significance of specific symbols. Through this experience, individuals develop the ability to relate effectively. PsychosocialIntegrity3. Right Answer: CExplanation: Communication is a personal, interactive system a series of ever-changing, ongoing transactions in the environment. Transmissions are simultaneously received (decoded), sent (encoded), and influenced by the total of experiences and perceptions of the receivers and senders. Through communication and interaction with others, an individual develops a sense of identity and being. Communication is the basis of a persons self-concept and the relationship of this self to another individual, to a group of people, and to the world. Psychosocial Integrity4. Right Answer: AExplanation: Sudden death produces greater emotional turmoil and shock in survivors than does a gradual, expected death.Survivors do not have time to engage in anticipatory grief. The most disturbing and unbalancing feature of sudden death is its unexpectedness. Psychosocial Integrity5. Right Answer: DExplanation: Perinatal loss is a great tragedy for the parents. A bereaved mother must resolve the crisis of perinatal loss in addition to the crisis of pregnancy. Such a loss is described as losing part of ones self loss of self-worth. The perinatal grief response must involve attachment and detachment as a part of the mourning process. Psychosocial Integrity .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 114
Questions 1. The difference between spirituality and religion is that spirituality is:A) a belief about a higher power.B) an individual - s relationship with a higher power.C) organized worship.D) a belief in an invisible energy or ideal.2. Spirituality affects a client - s life in all of the following areas except:A) nutritional intake.B) ability to handle stress.C) sexual expression.D) genetic makeup.3. How many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small, wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher?A) 1 footB) 2 feetC) 4 feetD) 6 feet4. While repositioning a comatose client, the nurse senses a tingling sensation as she lowers the bed. What action should she take?A) Unplug the bed - s power source.B) Remove the client from the bed immediately.C) Notify the biomedical department at once.D) Turn off the oxygen.5. After securing the client - s safety from a faulty electric bed, the nurse should take which action?A) Discuss the matter with the client - s significant others.B) Document the incident in the client - s record in detail.C) Notify the physician.D) Prepare an incident report. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: Religion can be considered a system of beliefs, practices, and ethical values about a divine or superhuman power or powers worshipped as the creator(s) and ruler(s) of the universe. Spirituality is a belief in or relationship with some higher power, creative force, driving being, or infinite source of energy. PsychosocialIntegrity2. Right Answer: DExplanation: Spirituality is a belief in or relationship with some higher power, creative force, divine being, or infinite source of energy and does not have any effect on genetic makeup. Psychosocial Integrity3. Right Answer: DExplanation: The nurse should stand about 6 feet from the source of the fire. Getting closer might put the nurse in danger. Safety and Infection Control4. Right Answer: AExplanation: Shutting off the beds electricity should be the initial step. The nurse should not touch the client until the bed is checked for faulty grounding. An electrician should assess the equipment. Oxygen should be discontinued until the equipment is cleared. Safety and Infection Control5. Right Answer: DExplanation: After the situation is safe for the client, the nurse should record the occurrence on an incident form according to the agency protocol. Safety and Infection Control .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 115
Questions 1. A client taking isotretinoin (Accutane) tells the nurse that she is pregnant. What should the nurse teach this client?A) Her pregnancy is threatened, and the fetus is at risk for teratogenesis.B) She has a reportable condition, and the pregnancy must be terminated.C) Accutane is a Category D drug, which means it is unsafe in pregnancy.D) Her pregnancy must be followed carefully by a genetic specialist.2. When a drug is listed as Category X and prescribed to women of child-bearing age/capacity, the nurse and the interdisciplinary team should counsel the client that:A) Pregnancy tests might be unreliable while taking the drug.B) She must use a reliable form of birth control.C) She should not take the Category X drug on days she has intercourse.D) She must follow up with an endocrinologist.3. The nurse seeks to assess the renal function of an elderly client who is about to receive a nephrotoxic medication. Which of the following labs provides the best indicator for renal function?A) urinalysisB) creatinine and blood urea nitrogenC) chemistry of electrolytesD) creatinine clearance4. The nurse sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?A) an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinivir)B) two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitorsC) one protease inhibitor such as NelfinavirD) two protease inhibitors5. A client is taking the fluoroquinolone Ciprofloxin for acute prostatitis. After a few doses of the agent, he develops severe muscle pain. The most likely cause of the adverse reaction is:A) electrolyte imbalance.B) impending tendon rupture.C) calcium deposits.D) antibiotic-associated colitis. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: Accutane is a Category X drug, which means pregnancy is contraindicated due to teratogenesis associated with the medication. The pharmaceutical manufacturer should be notified of any pregnancy occurring while taking the drug, but reporting is voluntary. Choosing to terminate the pregnancy is a personal decision that requires full information. Consultation with a genetic specialist or OB physician is indicated. Safety and Infection Control2. Right Answer: BExplanation: Category X drugs have many practice limitations when prescribed and dispensed to women. For example, the prescription is valid for only seven days, and if not filled, it expires. The FDA provides a pregnancyprevention program for clients taking Isotretinoin (Accutane). Prior to prescribing a Category X drug, a pregnancy test should be performed. Safety and Infection Control3. Right Answer: DExplanation: Due to decreases in lean body mass, blood creatinine is not as good an indicator of the elderly clients renal function as creatinine clearance. Urinalysis and blood urea nitrogen reflect hydration status and other clues to health but are not specific for renal function. The electrolytes might be deranged in renal failure but are not a direct correlation to the kidneys capability to eliminate waste. Therefore, the best lab for renal function in the elderly is thought to be creatinine clearance, which is a widely used test for glomerular filtration rate. Safety and Infection Control4. Right Answer: BExplanation: Unless there is drug resistance, the initial prophylaxis based on CDC recommendations is 2 NNRTIs. Safety and Infection Control5. Right Answer: BExplanation: An untoward, adverse drug reaction associated with the quinolones is tendon rupture. Electrolyte imbalance has not been associated with the group, and antibiotic-associated colitis is most common in augmentin and penicillin groups. Safety and Infection Control .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 116
Questions 1. What is the primary goal of family education?A) symptom reductionB) improved quality of lifeC) increased knowledge about mental illnessD) improved caregiving skills2. Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the agent of choice for which of the following infections?A) HIVB) AIDSC) candidaD) herpes3. The client on Floxin must be alerted to which of the following adverse effects?A) stunting of height in teens and young adultsB) propensity of anovulatory uterine bleedingC) intractable diarrheaD) tendon rupture4. Serum Vancomycin levels are taken to measure which of the following?A) renal functionB) therapeutic rangeC) trough levelsD) antibiotic resistance5. Which of the following is responsible for laws mandating the reporting of certain infections and diseases?A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)B) individual state lawsC) National Institute of Health Research (NIH)D) Health and Human Services (HHS) Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: Improving quality of life is the primary goal of family education. Symptom reduction is a goal of psychoeducation, not family education. Increased knowledge about mental illness might accompany family education, but is not a goal of it. Improved quality of life and reduced family burden are the goals. Improved care-giving skills might accompany family education but are not a goal of it. Psychosocial Integrity2. Right Answer: DExplanation: Acyclovir is an antiviral effective in shortening the duration of infection in herpes. It is used in HIV and AIDS to treat opportunistic, viral infections but is not a primary AIDS drug. Candida is a fungus and is responsive to antifungal medication. Safety and Infection Control3. Right Answer: DExplanation: Floxin is a quinolone antibiotic used in respiratory infections and pelvic and reproductive infections. Rarely, quinolones can cause tendon sheath rupture, usually of the Achilles. At the first indication of tendon pain, the antibiotic should be discontinued. Safety and Infection Control4. Right Answer: BExplanation: Vancomycin levels are monitored to ensure therapeutic effects by peak level. Trough level is that level of wash out or lowest level of drug just prior to the next dose. The blood is taken approximately 2 hours after an IV infusion. Renal function is measured by creatinine and BUN or creatinine clearance and resistance by sensitivity. Safety and Infection Control5. Right Answer: BExplanation: Individual state laws mandate the reporting of infectious diseases. The list of reportable diseases varies from state to state and is overseen by state health departments. CDC reporting is voluntary and done via collaboration with state agencies. There are 58 emerging infectious diseases under surveillance by theCDC. Safety and Infection Control .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 117
Questions 1. A nurse who is assessing the health-related physical fitness of a client as part of a health assessment should focus on which of the following aspects of the assessment?A) agilityB) speedC) body compositionD) risk factors2. A nurse is trying to motivate a client toward more effective management of a therapeutic regimen. Which of the following actions by the nurse is most likely to be effective in increasing the clients motivation?A) determining whether the client has any family or friends living nearbyB) developing a lengthy discharge plan and reviewing it carefully with the clientC) teaching the client about the disorder at the client - s level of understandingD) making a referral to an area agency for client followup3. Mr. Lee comes to the clinic with thick green drainage around his eyelids. The nurse examiner takes his history and performs a physical examination, beginning with an eye history. General information the nurse should seek is:A) type of employment.B) burning or itchy sensation in the eyes.C) position of the eyelids.D) existence of floaters.4. If Ms. Barrett - s distance vision is 20/30, which of the following statements is true?A) The client can read from 20' what a person with normal vision can read at 30'.B) The client can read from 30' what a person with normal vision can read at 20'.C) The client can read the entire chart from 30'.D) The client can read the chart from 20' with the left eye and from 30' with the right eye.5. The nurse is teaching a client about communicable diseases and explains that a portal of entry is:A) a vector.B) a source, like contaminated water.C) food.D) the respiratory system. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: A health assessment should focus on possible risk factors of the client. A risk factor is something that increases a persons chance for illness or injury. A health- risk appraisal is an assessment of the total person, including lifestyle and health behaviors. Health Promotion and Maintenance2. Right Answer: CExplanation: For maximum effectiveness, teach the client about the disorder at the clients level of understanding. Health Promotion and Maintenance3. Right Answer: AExplanation: Data belonging in a general health history of the eye includes employment, activities, allergies, medications, lenses, and protective devices used. Exposure to irritants and activity risks should be delineated. Routine care of eyes and eye devices should be explored. Health Promotion and Maintenance4. Right Answer: AExplanation: The numerator, which is always 20, is the distance in feet between the chart and the client. The denominator, which ranges from 10 to 200, indicates the distance at which a normal eye can read the chart. The eye chart the nurse uses is the Snellen chart, which assesses distance vision. Health Promotion and Maintenance5. Right Answer: DExplanation: The path by which a microorganism enters the body is the portal of entry. A vector is a carrier of disease, a source (like bad water or food) can be a reservoir of disease. Safety and Infection Control .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 118
Questions 1. Which of the following microorganisms are considered normal body flora?A) staphylococcus on the skinB) streptococcus in the naresC) candida albicans in the vaginaD) pseudomonas in the blood2. Which intervention should the nurse take first to assist a woman who states that she feels incompetent as the mother of a teenage daughter?A) Recommend that she discipline her daughter more strictly and consistently.B) Make a list of things her husband can do to help her improve.C) Assist the mother to identify what she believes is preventing her success and what she can do to improve.D) Explore with the mother what the daughter can do to improve her behavior.3. The mother of a newborn child is very upset. The child has a cleft lip and palate. The type of crisis this mother is experiencing is:A) reactive.B) maturational.C) situational.D) adventitious.4. A 26-year-old single woman is knocked down and robbed while walking her dog one evening. Three months later, she presents at the crisis clinic, stating that she cannot put this experience out of her mind. She complains of nightmares, extreme fear of being outside or alone, and difficulty eating and sleeping. What is the best response by the nurse?A) 'I will ask the physician to prescribe medication for you.'B) 'That must have been a very difficult and frightening experience. It might be helpful to talk about it.'C) 'In the future, you might walk your dog in a more populated area or hire someone else to take over this task.'D) 'Have you thought of moving to a safer neighborhood?'5. A 60-year-old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping, extreme apprehension, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. What is the best response by the nurse?A) 'You have nothing to worry about. You are in a safe place. Try to relax.'B) 'Has anything happened recently or in the past that might have triggered these feelings?'C) 'We have given you a medication that helps to decrease feelings of anxiety.'D) 'Take some deep breaths and try to calm down.' Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: Of the choices given, only staphylococcus is considered a normal resident of the body. Safety and Infection Control2. Right Answer: CExplanation: The intervention priority with a mother who feels incompetent to parent a teenage daughter is to assist the mother to identify what she feels her crisis events are and to help her develop better coping skills and improve her mothering skills. With a teenager, the growth and development parameters have to be concentrated on self as well as acquiring an added event. Choices 1, 2, and 4 do not directly address the mothers feelings of inadequacy. Psychosocial Integrity3. Right Answer: CExplanation: The arrival of the imperfect child that the mother had not envisioned places the mother in a situational crisis.Choice 1 is not an option. Choice 2 is an identified specific time period in normal development when anxiety and stress increase. Choice 4 is a crisis that occurs outside the persons control so that the person has a disruption in social norms. Psychosocial Integrity4. Right Answer: BExplanation: Choice 2 gives the client support and an opportunity to discuss the experience. Choices 1, 3, and 4 do not validate her experience or permit discussion of her feelings. Psychosocial Integrity5. Right Answer: BExplanation: Choice 2 provides support, reassurance, and an opportunity to gain insight into the cause of the anxiety. Choice 1 dismisses the clients feelings and offers false reassurance. Choices 3 and 4 do not allow the client to discuss his feelings, which he must do in order to understand and resolve the cause of his anxiety.Psychosocial Integrity .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 119
Questions 1. A primigravida begins labor when her family is unavailable and she is alone. She is very upset that her family is not with her. Which approach can the nurse take to meet the clients needs at this time?A) asking whether another individual wants to be her support personB) assuring her that the nursing triage group will be with her at all timesC) telling her you will try to locate her familyD) reinforcing the woman - s confidence in her own abilities to cope and maintain a sense of control2. Signs of internal bleeding include all of the following except:A) painful or swollen extremities.B) a tender, rigid abdomen.C) vomiting bile.D) bruising.3. A newborn has been delivered. An Apgar score is given. What does this scoring system indicate?A) heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, reflex irritabilityB) heart rate, bleeding, cyanosis, edemaC) bleeding, reflex, edemaD) respiratory effort, heart rate, seizures4. The nurse working with elderly clients should keep in mind that falls are most likely to happen to elderly who are:A) in their 80s.B) living at home.C) hospitalized.D) living on only Social Security income.5. The nurse assesses a client for physiological risk factors for falls. The nurse should conclude that the client is not at risk if which of the following is discovered?A) history of dizzinessB) need for wheelchair due to reduced mobilityC) weakness and fatigue noted when climbing stairsD) intact recent and remote memory Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: Allow the client to select another individual to give support. This allows her to have someone with her until her family can be with her. Safety and Infection Control2. Right Answer: CExplanation: Vomiting bile is usually not a sign of internal bleeding. Signs of internal bleeding include painful or swollen extremities; a tender, rigid abdomen; and bruising.Safety and Infection Control3. Right Answer: AExplanation: The Apgar scoring system was put into place by Virginia Apgar, an anesthesiologist in New York, for the purpose of assessing newborns in the areas of heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability at 1, 5, and sometimes 10 minutes after birth. Safety and Infection Control4. Right Answer: CExplanation: Elder people are particularly prone to falling and incurring serious injury, especially in new situations and environments (such as the hospital). Safety and InfectionControl5. Right Answer: DExplanation: Intact recent and remote memory indicates that a client is not at risk for falls. Risk for falls can occur in elder clients, and the nurse should assess each client for the possibility of falls and take appropriate actions. Safety and Infection Control .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
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