Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 95
Questions 1. In working with a manipulative client, which of the following nursing interventions would be most appropriate?A) Bargaining with the client as a strategy to control the behaviorB) Redirecting the clientC) Providing a consistent set of guidelines and rulesD) Assigning the client to different staff persons each day2. Primary nursing diagnoses for the antisocial client are:A) Alteration in perception and altered self-conceptB) Impaired social interaction, ineffective individual coping, and altered self-conceptC) Altered communication processes and altered recreational patternsD) Altered body image and altered thought processes3. A 25-year-old outpatient presents with a diagnosis of compulsive personality disorder. His coworkers become annoyed with his rigid, perfectionistic manner and preoccupation with trivial details and schedules. A nursing intervention appropriate for this client would include:A) Encouraging him to engage in recreational activitiesB) Avoiding discussion of his annoying behaviorC) Encouraging the client to set a time schedule and deadlines for himselfD) Contracting with him for the amount of time he will spend on the compulsive behaviors4. The serial sevens test is often used to determine delirium and dementia. This test aids in assessing which of the following?A) Abstract thinkingB) Ability to focus and concentrate thoughtsC) JudgmentD) Memory5. A 14-year-old client has a history of lying, stealing, and destruction of property. Personal items of peers have been found missing. After group therapy, a peer approaches the nurse to report that he has seen the 14- year-old with some of the missing items. The best response of the nurse is to:A) Request that he explain to the group why he took personal items from peersB) Approach him when he is alone to inquire about his involvement in the incidentC) Imply to him that you doubt his involvement in the incident and request his denialD) Confront him openly in group and request an apology Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) This answer is incorrect. Bargaining is a manipulative act, which the nurse could expect from the client. (B) This answer is incorrect. Confrontation is an effective nursing strategy with manipulative behavior. Redirection is appropriate for the client who is out of touch with reality. (C) This answer is correct.Manipulative clients must abide by consistent rules. (D) This answer is incorrect. Manipulation is kept at a minimum if the same staff person is assigned to the client. Often the client will attempt to play staff persons against each other.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) This answer is incorrect. Perception is not altered because the client is not psychotic. (B) This answer is correct. The antisocial client lacks responsibility, accountability, and social commitment; has impaired problem-solving ability; tends to overuse defense mechanisms; lies and steals; and is often grandiose concerning self. (C) This answer is incorrect. Altered communication processes do not characterize this client. The antisocial person communicates well and tends to have a charming personality. (D) This answer is incorrect. Altered thought processes refer to delusional thinking, which is bizarre and fixed, and do not characterize this client.3. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) This answer is incorrect. The client will work hard at the activity instead of enjoying it. (B) This answer is incorrect. The nurse should allow the client to discuss these thoughts, within limits, not to avoid discussing them. (C) This answer is incorrect. The compulsive client tends to control time to excess. It should not be encouraged. (D) This answer is correct. A contract with the client regarding the amount of time that will be spent discussing the compulsive activities is appropriate. Time allotted should be gradually decreased.4. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) This answer is incorrect. The test measures the abilities to concentrate and calculate. The use of proverbs is the most common way to test abstraction. (B)This answer is correct. The serial sevens test is a common test of calculation ability. It is difficult for the demented or delirious client to perform. (C) This answer is incorrect. The test for judgment should predict whether the individual will behave in a socially accepted manner. (D) This answer is incorrect. In testingmemory, the nurse would attempt to get the client either to recall recent events or to think about past events.5. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) This answer is incorrect. There is no proof that he removed the missing items. (B) This answer is correct. Anxiety and defensiveness are lessened if the individual is approached in this manner. (C) This answer is incorrect. It is difficult for one to admit to wrongdoing with this approach. (D) This answer is incorrect.He has not yet been proved guilty. Confrontation will only increase defensiveness and anxiety. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 96
Questions 1. A 15-year-old client is admitted to the adolescent unit. The nurse recognizes that encouraging a client to speak openly depends on how clearly questions are phrased. Which of the following statements is most desirable in eliciting information from an adolescent client?A) 'Do you get along well with your family?'B) 'Do you communicate with your parents?'C) 'You don - t hate your family, do you?'D) 'What is it like between you and your family?'2. A 37-year-old client has been taking antipsychotic medication for the past 10 days. The nurse observes her walking with a shuffling gait and postural rigidity and notes a masklike expression on her face. Which side effect is this client exhibiting?A) DystoniaB) ParkinsonismC) Tardive dyskinesiaD) Akathesia3. Clients receiving antipsychotic drug therapy will often exhibit extrapyramidal side effects that are reversible with which of the following agents ordered by the physician?A) PhenothiazinesB) AnticholinergicsC) Anti-Parkinsonian drugsD) Tricyclic agents4. A client who was started on antipsychotic medication 2 weeks ago is preparing for discharge from the hospital. Compliance with the medication regimen is important despite the mild side effects encountered. In order to increase the likelihood of medication compliance, the nurse would:A) Discuss the disease process and the importance of the medication in prevention of symptoms.B) Inform the client that additional side effects are to be expected and need not be reported.C) Discuss the importance of getting blood drawn weekly to determine medication therapeutics.D) Inform the client to cease taking the medication when all psychotic symptoms have cleared.5. A depressed client is seen at the mental health center for follow-up after an attempted suicide 1 week ago. She has taken phenelzine sulfate (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor, for 7 straight days. She states that she is not feeling any better. The nurse explains that the drug must accumulate to an effective level before symptoms are totally relieved. Symptom relief is expected to occur within:A) 10 daysB) 2 - 4 weeksC) 2 monthsD) 3 months Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A, B) This statement can be answered with a simple yes or no. (C) This statement is asked in a negative manner and therefore has a negative connotation. (D)This statement is open ended and positively stated.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) This answer is incorrect. Dystonia refers to severe, painful muscle contractions. (B) This answer is correct. Parkinsonism commonly occurs approximately 12 weeks after initiation of antipsychotic drug therapy. Traditional signs are masklike facies, postural rigidity, shuffling gait, and resting tremor. (C) This answer is incorrect. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary muscle movements of the face, jaw, and tongue. (D) This answer is incorrect. Akathesia is motor restlessness.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) This answer is incorrect. Phenothiazines are antipsychotic drugs and produce the symptoms. (B) This answer is correct. Anticholinergic agents are often used prophylactically for extrapyramidal symptoms. They balance cholinergic activity in the basal ganglia of the brain. (C) This answer is incorrect. Anti- Parkinsonian drugs would increase the symptoms. (D) This answer is incorrect. Tricyclic agents are used for symptoms of depression.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) This answer is correct. If the client is well informed about what reactions to expect from her medication, she is more likely to follow the treatment regimen. (B)This answer is incorrect. There are many side effects that are reversible by medication, and these must be reported to the nurse or physician. There are also more severe side effects, such as neuroleptic malignant syndrome, characterized by fever, tachycardia, and diaphoresis, which can be life threatening. (C) This answer is incorrect. There is no need for weekly blood tests if the drug regimen has been followed properly. (D) This answer is incorrect. The client should continue the medicationuntil the physician recommends any change in the drug regimen. Symptoms will usually reappear if medication is discontinued.5. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) This answer is incorrect. It can take up to 1 month for therapeutic effect of the medication. (B) This answer is correct. Because MAO inhibitors are slow to act, it takes 24 weeks before improvement of symptoms is noted. (C) This answer is incorrect. It can take up to 1 month for therapeutic effect of the medication. (D)This answer is incorrect. Therapeutic effects of the medication are noted within 1 month of drug therapy. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 97
Questions 1. Because a client is taking an MAO inhibitor, it is necessary to discuss the need for adherence to a low-tyramine diet. Which of the following are foods that she should avoid?A) Pickled, aged, smoked, and fermented foodsB) Fresh vegetablesC) Broiled fresh fish and fowlD) Fresh fruit such as apples and oranges2. In working with mental health clients who are prescribed medication that must be taken on a routine basis, it is important for education to begin when the drug therapy is initiated. One of the first steps in the teaching process is to:A) Explain the side effects of the medicationB) Discuss the danger of overmedicationC) Distribute written material to supplement verbal instructionsD) Explore the client - s perception regarding medication therapy3. A 29-year-old client is diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. He has aroused the nurse - s anger by using a condescending tone of voice with other clients and staff persons. Which of the following statements from the nurse would be most appropriate in acknowledging feelings regarding the client - s behavior?A) 'I feel angry when I hear that tone of voice.'B) 'You make me angry when you talk to me that way.'C) 'Are you trying to get me angry?'D) 'Why do you treat me that way?'4. The mother of a 7-year-old mental health center client reports that the client has refused to attend gymnastics for the past 2 weeks. Prior to that time, the child liked going to this class and was attending 3 times a week. In talking with the client, the nurse would:A) Ask her why she doesn - t like gymnastics anymoreB) Ask her to describe how things were at gymnastics before she started refusing to goC) Tell her that it is OK to be afraid of this activityD) Reassure her that things will get better once she begins the classes again5. A 42-year-old client presents with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. She has become increasingly restless and verbally argumentative, and her speech has become pressured. She is exhibiting signs of:A) DepressionB) AgitationC) Psychotic ideationD) Anhedonia Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) These foods may produce elevation in blood pressure when consumed during MAO inhibition therapy. (B) These foods have not been pickled, fermented, smoked, or aged. They contain very little, if any, tyramine or tryptophan. (C) As long as the meat has not been aged or smoked, it is within the dietary regimen. (D)Fresh fruits can be consumed as desired. However, the consumption of bananas is limited.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A, B, C) The nurse must first obtain information regarding the clients perception of the medication regimen. (D) The first step in the teaching process is to determine the clients perception.3. Right Answer: AExplanation: The nurse appropriately states how he or she feels when the client speaks in a condescending manner. (B) This statement indicates that the client has control over the nurse. No one makes another person angry; each individual has a choice. (C) 'Why' questions usually put a person on the defensive. In addition, the client cannot 'make' the nurse angry. The client does not have that control. (D) Again, a 'why' statement places the client on the defensive.4. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) The child has not said that she dislikes gymnastics. (B) The nurse will be able to obtain information on what events occurred at gymnastics prior to her refusal to attend. The nurse will also gain information about the childs perception of the problem. (C) The child has not said she is afraid to go to gymnastics. (D) False reassurance is inappropriate.5. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Signs of depression would include withdrawal, sadness, morbid thoughts, insomnia, early awakening, etc. (B) These clinical features are classic signs of agitation. (C) Psychotic ideation includes delusional thoughts, bizarre behavior, disorganized thinking, etc. (D) Anhedonia is the inability to experience pleasure. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 98
Questions 1. A 50-year-old depressed client has recently lost his job. He has been reluctant to leave his hospital room. Nursing care would include:A) Forcing the client to attend all unit activitiesB) Encouraging the client to discuss why he is so sadC) Monitoring elimination patternsD) Providing sensory stimulation2. A client was admitted to the hospital for a TURP. Within 48 hours of admission and 12 hours postoperatively, both the blood pressure and pulse increased. He became agitated, thought snakes were crawling on his arms and legs, and generally became unmanageable. He pulled out his IV and urinary catheter in attempt to rid himself of the snakes. He was sweating profusely. The admission nurse - s notes indicated that the client admitted to 'having a few drinks now and then.' He is probably experiencing which of the following?A) Major psychotic depressionB) Delirium tremensC) Generalized anxiety disorderD) Adjustment disorder with mixed features3. A 68-year-old client developed acute respiratory distress syndrome while hospitalized for pneumonia. After a respiratory arrest, an endotracheal tube was inserted. Several days later, numerous attempts to wean him from mechanical ventilation were ineffective, and a tracheostomy was created. For the first 24 hours following tracheostomy, it is important to minimize bleeding around the insertion site. The nurse can accomplish this by:A) Deflating the cuff for 10 minutes every other hour instead of 5 minutes every hourB) Avoiding manipulation of the tracheostomy including cuff deflationC) Reporting any signs of crepitus immediately to the physicianD) Changing tracheostomy dressing only as necessary using one-half strength hydrogen peroxide to cleanse the site4. A client had a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm that was repaired surgically. Her postoperative recovery progressed without complications, and she is ready for discharge. Client education in preparation for discharge began 7 days ago on her admission to the nursing unit. Evaluation of nursing care related to client education is based on evaluation of expected outcomes. Which statement made by the client would indicate that she is ready for discharge?A) 'I will not drive but ride in the front seat of the car with a seat belt on for my first doctor - s appointment.'B) 'When I bathe tomorrow morning, I will be very careful not to get soap on my incision.'C) 'I am allowed to exercise by walking for short periods.'D) 'Teach my husband about the diet. He - ll be doing all the cooking now.'5. A 67-year-old man had a physical examination prior to beginning volunteer work at the hospital. A routine chest x-ray demonstrated left ventricular hypertrophy.His blood pressure was 180/110. He is 45 lb overweight. His diet is high in sodium and fat. He has a strong family history of hypertension. The client is placed on antihypertensive medication; a low-sodium, low-fat diet; and an exercise regimen. On his next visit, compliance would best be determined by:A) A blood pressure reading of 130/70 with a 5-lb weight lossB) No side effects from antihypertensive medication and an accurate pill countC) No evidence of increased left ventricular hypertrophy on chest x-rayD) Serum blood levels of the antihypertensive medication within therapeutic range Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) The client should be encouraged to attend the unit activities. The nurse and client should choose a few activities for the client to attend that will be positive experiences for him. (B) The nurse should encourage the client to discuss his feelings and to begin to deal with the depression. (C) Depressed persons often have little appetite and poor fluid intake. Constipation is common. (D) A calm, consistent level of stimuli is most effective. Sensory deprivation and overstimulation should be avoided.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Symptoms of psychotic depression must exist for at least 2 weeks, and the symptoms must represent a change from previous functioning. (B) Delirium tremens occur approximately on the second or third day following cessation or reduction of alcohol intake. Symptoms would be all those described in the situation.(C) Symptoms exhibited by this client are not exhibited in clients with anxiety disorders, who manifest excessive or unrealistic worry about life circumstances for at least 6 months. (D) Symptoms for adjustment disorders with mixed emotional features (e.g., depression and anxiety) are different from those exhibited by the client in this situation.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) The tracheal cuff should not be deflated within the first 24 hours following surgery. (B) To minimize bleeding, any manipulation, including cuff deflation, should be avoided. (C) Small amounts of crepitus are expected to occur; however, large amounts or expansion of the area of crepitus should be reported to the physician.(D) The tracheostomy site may be changed as often as necessary, but site care should be done with normal saline.4. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Postoperatively, clients with major abdominal surgery are instructed to avoid driving, riding in the front seat, and wearing seat belts because any sudden impact may injure a fresh incision. She should ride in back seat without a seat belt. (B) Clients should not sit in the tub and allow the incision to soak in water because this may predispose the client to infection. A short, cool shower would be preferable. Allowing soap to come in contact with the incision would not harm it and is frequently used as postoperative wound care at home on discharge from the hospital. (C) Activity instructions include: avoid sitting for long periods and get exercise by walking. Lifting more than 5 lb of weight is also prohibited. (D) The client must also learn her diet. Her husband cooking is probably a temporary measure unless he did the cooking prior to her hospitalization.A statement such as this may indicate the need for further exploration of feelings regarding her illness, dependence, and self-care expectations.5. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) A blood pressure within acceptable range best demonstrates compliance, but weight loss cannot be accomplished without adherence to medication, diet, and exercise. (B) Absence of side effects does not indicate compliance with medication. Pill counts can be misleading because the client can alter pill counts prior to visit. (C) Left ventricular hypertrophy is not an accurate measure of compliance because hypertrophy frequently does not decrease even with pharmacological management. (D) Therapeutic blood levels measure the drug level at the time of the test. There is no indication of compliance several days before testing. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 99
Questions 1. A 55-year-old woman entered the emergency room by ambulance. Her primary complaint is chest pain. She is receiving O2 via nasal cannula at 2 L/min for dyspnea. Which of the following findings in the clients nursing assessment demand immediate nursing action?A) Associated symptoms of indigestion and nauseaB) Restlessness and apprehensivenessC) Inability to tolerate assessment session with the admitting nurseD) History of hypertension treated with pharmacological therapy2. A 48-year-old client is in the surgical intensive care unit after having had three-vessel coronary artery bypass surgery yesterday. She is extubated, awake, alert and talking. She is receiving digitalis for atrial arrhythmias. This morning serum electrolytes were drawn. Which abnormality would require immediate intervention by the nurse after contacting the physician?A) Serum osmolality is elevated indicating hemoconcentration.The nurse should increase IV fluid rate.B) Serum sodium is low. The nurse should change IV fluids to normal saline.C) Blood urea nitrogen is subnormal. The nurse should increase the protein in the client - s diet as soon as possible.D) Serum potassium is low. The nurse should administer KCl as ordered.3. A 23-year-old college student seeks medical attention at the college infirmary for complaints of severe fatigue. Her skin is pale, and she reports exertional dyspnea. She is admitted to the hospital with possible aplastic anemia. Laboratory values reflect anemia, and the client is prepared for a bone marrow biopsy. She refuses to sign the biopsy consent and states, 'Can - t you just get the doctor to give me a transfusion and let me go. This weekend begins spring break, and I have plans to go to Florida.' At this time the nurse - s greatest concern is that:A) The client may contract an infection as a result of being exposed to large crowds at spring breakB) The client does not grasp the full impact of her illnessC) The client may require transfusion before leaving for spring breakD) The causative agent be identified and treatment begun4. A 68-year-old man was recently diagnosed with endstage renal disease. He has not yet begun dialysis but is experiencing severe anemia with associated symptoms of dyspnea on exertion and chest pain. Which statement best describes the management of anemia in renal failure?A) Hematocrit levels usually remain slightly below normalin clients with renal failure.B) Transfusion is often begun as early as possible to prevent complications of anemia such as dyspnea and angina.C) Anemia in renal failure is frequently caused by low serum iron and ferritin and corrected by oral iron and ferritin replacement therapy.D) The renal secretion of erythropoiesis is decreased. The bone marrow requires erythropoietin to mature red blood cells.5. A female client has married recently. A month ago she visited her physician with complaints of burning on urination. She was given a prescription for trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) DS bid for 10 days. She was admitted through the emergency room on Saturday evening complaining of flank pain. Her temperature was 104_F. A preliminary urinalysis revealed 31 bacteria along with red and white blood cells in the urine. A preliminary diagnosis of pyelonephritis was made.During a nursing admission assessment, which statement by the client demonstrates a possible cause for pyelonephritis?A) 'I have not been drinking six to eight glasses of water each day as the nurse had instructed.'B) 'I - m afraid I may have something wrong with my bladder because I have been getting bladder infections frequently since I - ve been married.'C) 'I took the Bactrim for 6 or 7 days. The burning stopped, so I saved the rest of the medication for the next time.'D) 'I recently had the flu, which could be settling in my kidneys now.' Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Indigestion or nausea may accompany angina or myocardial infarction, but they do not indicate imminent danger for the client. (B) Restlessness and apprehensiveness require immediate nursing action because they are indicative of very low oxygenation of body tissues and are frequently the first indication of impending cardiac or respiratory arrest. (C) It is common for the cardiac client to experience fatigue and inability to physically tolerate long assessment sessions.(D) A history of hypertension requires no immediate nursing intervention. In the situation described, the blood pressure is not given and therefore cannot be assumed to be elevated.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) An elevated serum osmolality poses no immediate danger and is not corrected rapidly. (B) A low serum sodium alone does not warrant changing IV fluids to normal saline. Other assessment parameters, such as hydration status, must be considered. (C) A low serum blood urea nitrogen is not necessarily indicative of protein deprivation. It may also be the result of overhydration. (D)A low serum potassium potentiates the effects of digitalis, predisposing the client to dangerous arrhythmias. It must be corrected immediately.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) The client could contract an infection, but at this point it is not the most pertinent issue. (B) The clients statement indicates that she does not grasp the full impact of her illness. Further client education must be given, along with allowing her to express her feelings regarding her illness. (C) The client may require a transfusion, but this is a temporary measure because the causative agent has not been identified. Her feelings regarding her illness must be addressed in order for care to continue. (D) A bone marrow is done first to make a definitive diagnosis; then treatment may begin.4. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Clients in renal failure typically have very low hematocrits, often in the range of 1622%. (B) Transfusion is avoided unless the client exhibits acute symptoms such as dyspnea, chest pain, tachycardia, and extreme fatigue. When the client is given a transfusion, the bone marrow adjusts by producing less red blood cells.(C) Anemia in renal failure is caused primarily by decreased erythropoietin. Low serum iron and ferritin may aggravate the anemia and require treatment. (D)Decreased secretion of erythropoietin by the kidney is the primary cause of anemia. The bone marrow requires this hormone to mature red blood cells. Treatment is with replacement therapy.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Although it is important that the client drink adequate fluids while treating a bladder infection with trimethoprimsulfamethoxazole, the failure to do so will not cause pyelonephritis. (B) A stricture or abnormality may cause the progression of bladder infection to urinary tract infection, but this is rare. There is no indication in this situation that this has occurred. (C) The most common cause of pyelonephritis is improper treatment of bladder infections. The client typically feels better after several days, discontinues the medication, and saves the remainder forthe next occurrence of a bladder infection. For this reason, it is imperative to provide client education related to completion of the prescribed medication. (D) There is no evidence that infection in another body system could cause pyelonephritis. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 100
Questions 1. A male client was diagnosed 6 months ago with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The progression of the disease has been aggressive. He is unable to maintain his personal hygiene without assistance. Ambulation is most difficult, requiring him to use a wheelchair and rely on assistance for mobility. He recently has become severely dysphasic. Nursing interventions for dysphasia would be aimed toward prevention of:A) Loss of ability to speak and communicate effectivelyB) Aspiration and weight lossC) Secondary infection resulting from poor oral hygieneD) Drooling2. A 70-year-old female client is admitted to the medical intensive care unit with a diagnosis of cerebrovascular accident (CVA). She is semicomatose, responding to pain and change in position. She is unable to speak or cough. In planning her nursing care for the first 24 hours following a CVA, which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority?A) Ineffective airway clearance related to immobility, ineffective cough, and decreased level of consciousnessB) Altered cerebral tissue perfusion related to pathophysiological changes that decrease blood flowC) Potential for injury related to impaired mobility and seizuresD) Impaired verbal communication related to aphasia3. A 32-year-old female client is being treated for Guillain- Barr syndrome. She complains of gradually increasing muscle weakness over the past several days. She has noticed an increased difficulty in ambulating and fell yesterday. When conducting a nursing assessment, which finding would indicate a need for immediate further evaluation?A) Complaints of a headacheB) Loss of superficial and deep tendon reflexesC) Complaints of shortness of breathD) Facial paralysis4. A 19-year-old male client arrived via ambulance to the emergency room following a motorcycle accident. He is comatose. His face has evidence of dried blood. On assessment, the nurse notes an obvious injury to his left eye. The preferred positioning for a client with an obvious eye injury is:A) Reclining to control bleedingB) Any position in which the client is comfortableC) Side-lying, either left or rightD) Sitting with head support5. A female client has been hospitalized for several months following major abdominal surgery for a ruptured colon. A colostomy was created, and the large abdominal wound was left open and allowed to heal through granulation. She is receiving gentamicin IV for treatment of wound infection. Knowing this drug is ototoxic, the nurse would implement which of the following measures?A) Instruct the client to report any signs of tinnitus, dizziness or difficulty hearing.B) Advise the client to discontinue the drug at the first sign of dizziness.C) Order audiometric testing in order to determine if hearing loss is caused by an ototoxic drug or other cause.D) Instruct the client in Valsalva - s maneuver to equalize middle ear pressure and to prevent hearing loss. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Loss of ability to speak is not dysphasia. Although the client may have difficulty communicating, alternative measures can be developed to enhance communication. This goal, while important, is of a lesser priority. (B) Dysphasia is difficulty swallowing, which could result in aspiration of food and inability to eat, causing weight loss. (C) A secondary infection could result from poor oral hygiene, which could enhance the clients inability to eat, but this goal is of a lesser priority. (D) Drooling normally occurs in clients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and may require suctioning. Drooling, while aggravating for the client, does not pose an immediate danger.2. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) An effective airway is necessary to prevent hypoxia and subsequent cardiac arrest. (B) Cerebral tissue perfusion is necessary to preserve remaining cerebral tissue, but this goal is secondary to maintenance of an effective airway. (C) While prevention of injury is important, it is secondary to maintaining an effective airway and cerebral tissue perfusion. (D) Impaired verbal communication is not life threatening in the acute phase of recovery. It is the lowest priority of the nursing diagnoses listed.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Headaches are not associated with Guillain-Barr syndrome. (B) Loss of superficial and deep tendon reflexes is expected with this diagnosis. (C) Complaints of shortness of breath must be further evaluated. Forty percent of all clients have some detectable respiratory weakness and should be prepared for a possible tracheostomy. Pneumonia is also a common complication of this syndrome. (D) Facial paralysis is expected and is not considered abnormal.4. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) A reclining position can cause a penetrating object to advance further into the eye. (B) Prevention of further injury is the priority, not comfort. (C) A side-lying position may increase intraocular and intracranial pressure if an accompanying head injury is suspected. (D) A sitting position with the head supported will prevent further injury while allowing injury care to take place.5. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) The first nursing measure is to instruct the client in which drug side effects to report. (B) Discontinuing the drug is not an independent nursing intervention and may compromise client care. (C) Audiometric testing will detect hearing loss, but it does not indicate a potential cause. (D) Equalizing middle ear pressure will not prevent hearing loss. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 101
Questions 1. A male client has experienced low back pain for several years. He is the primary support of his wife and six children. Although he would qualify for disability, he plans to continue his employment as long as possible. His back pain has increased recently, and he is unable to control it with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents. He refuses surgery and cannot take narcotics and remain alert enough to concentrate at work. His physician has suggested application of a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) unit. Which of the following is an appropriate rationale for using a TENS unit for relief of pain?A) TENS units have an ultrasonic effect that relaxes muscles, decreases joint stiffness, and increases range of motion.B) TENS units produce endogenous opioids that affect the central nervous system with analgesic potency comparable to morphine.C) TENS units work on the gate-control theory of pain; biostimulation therapy of large fibers block painful stimuli.D) TENS units prevent muscle spasms, decrease the potential for further injury, and minimize pressure on joints.2. A male client had a right below-the-knee amputation 4 days ago. His incision is healing well. He has gotten out of bed several times and sat at the side of the bed.Each time after returning to bed, he has experienced pain as if it were located in his right foot. Which nursing measure indicates the nurse has a thorough understanding of phantom pain and its management?A) Phantom pain is entirely in the client - s mind. The client should be instructed that the pain is psychological and should not be treated.B) The basis for phantom pain may occur because the nerves still carry pain sensation to the brain even though the limb has been amputated. The pain is real, intense, and should be treated.C) The cause of phantom pain is unknown. The nurse should provide the client with support, promote sleep, and handle the injured limb smoothly and gently.D) Phantom pain is caused by trauma, spasms, and edema at the incisional site. It will decrease when postoperative edema decreases. It should be treated with nonnarcotic medication whenever possible.3. A 28-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital for a thyroidectomy. Postoperatively she is taken to the postanesthesia care unit for several hours. In preparing for the clients return to her room, which nursing measure best demonstrates the nurses thorough understanding of possible postthyroidectomy complications?A) Dressings are placed at the bedside for dressing changes, which are to be done every 2 hours to best detect postoperative bleeding.B) Narcotics are readily available and administered when the client returns to her room to prevent excruciating pain.C) A tracheostomy set, O2, and suction are available at the bedside.D) The nurse should instruct the client as soon as possible on alternative means of communication.4. A male client is diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. He has been on dialysis for several years. He is experiencing symptoms such as numbness of the lips, muscle weakness, carpopedal spasms, and wheezing. Given the clients symptoms, nursing assessment would focus on:A) Detection of tetanyB) Detection of hypocalcemia to prevent seizuresC) Evidence of depressionD) Detection of premature cataract formation5. A male client has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for approximately 30 years. He frequently indulges in highsugar foods and forgets to take his insulin. He has not experienced acute diabetic emergencies over the years but is now beginning to demonstrate symptoms of diabetic peripheral neuropathy. This distresses him because dancing is one of his favorite pastimes. He decides to question his wifes home health nurse about diabetic peripheral neuropathy. The nurse points out his noncompliance to his diabetic diet and insulin regimen. The client answers the nurse, 'It has been my experience that the diabetic diet is very difficult to follow.As far as the insulin, isn - t a fellow allowed to forget now and then?' The client - s actions and response best demonstrate:A) DepressionB) AngerC) DenialD) Bargaining Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) TENS units do not have this effect, but whirlpool therapy does. (B) TENS units do not produce endogenous opioids, only the body can do that. (C) TENS units do work based on the gatecontrol theory of pain control. (D) TENS units do not have this effect, but possibly changing the clients position would.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) This statement is entirely false. (B) Phantom pain may be caused by nerves continuing to carry sensation to the brain even though the limb is removed. It is real, intense, and should be treated as ordinary pain would. (C) Although the cause of phantom pain is still unknown, thesemeasures may promote the relief of any type of pain, not just phantom pain. (D) Phantom pain is not caused by trauma, spasms, and edema and will not be relieved by decreasing edema.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Dressing changes are done as necessary for bleeding. However, frequently, post-thyroidectomy bleeding may not be visible on the dressing, but blood may drain down the back of the neck by gravity. (B) Narcotics are administered for acute pain as necessary. They are not necessarily given on return of the client to her room. (C) The most serious postthyroidectomy complication is ineffective airway and breathing pattern related to tracheal compression and edema. A tracheostomy set, O2, and suction should be available at bedside for at least the first 24 hours postoperatively. (D) Impaired verbal communication may occur due to laryngeal edema or nerve damage, but most commonly, it occurs due to endotracheal intubation. The client is usually able to communicate but is hoarse.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Assessment should focus on detection of tetany, which is the most common symptom of hypoparathyroidism. Left undetected and untreated, tetany resulting from hypocalcemia can progress to seizures. (B) Hypocalcemia is difficult to detect on nursing assessment alone. Abdominal cramping may be an indication of hypocalcemia, but laboratory data are required to confirm diagnosis. (C) Depression can be a symptom of hypoparathyroidism, but it is not definitive. (D)Premature cataract formation can occur, but it also is not specific to parathyroidism and poses no immediate danger to the client.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Depression may be an underlying feature, but it is not evident from limited data presented here. (B) Anger is not exhibited in his response. (C) Denial is evident in the clients actions; through the years, he has had a casual approach to his illness. He only becomes concerned when bodily changes affect his present lifestyle, when in fact he should have been concerned all along. His verbal response also reflects denial. (D) There is no evidence of bargaining in the clients actions or verbal response. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 102
Questions 1. A female client was recently diagnosed with gastric cancer. She entered the hospital and had a total gastrectomy with esophagojejunostomy. Her postoperative recovery was uneventful. On conducting discharge teaching, the nurse discusses changes in bodily function and lifestyle changes with the client. In order to prevent pernicious anemia, the nurse stresses that the client must:A) Receive monthly blood transfusionsB) Increase the amount of iron in her dietC) Eat small quantities several times daily until she is able to tolerate food in moderate portionsD) Understand the need for Vitamin B12 replacement therapy2. A female client was employed as a client care technician in a hemodialysis unit. She recently began to experience extreme fatigue, being able to sleep for 1620 hours at a time. She also noted that her urine was tea colored, which she rationalized was a result of the vitamins she began taking to alleviate fatigue. She was diagnosed with hepatitis B. After a brief hospital stay, she is discharged to her parents home. Her mother asks the nurse if any precautions are necessary to prevent transmission to the clients family. The nurse explains necessary precautions, which include:A) Isolation of the client from the remainder of the familyB) Separate bathroom facilities if possible; if not, then cleansing daily of the facilities with a chloride solutionC) No necessary precautions because she is beyond the contagious phaseD) Laundering clothes separately in cold water with a chloride solution3. A male client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit from the emergency room with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. The nurse performs the admission nursing assessment. He is NPO with IV fluids infusing at 100 mL/hour. He is experiencing excruciating abdominal pain. Based on an analysis of these data, which nursing diagnosis would receive the highest priority?A) Pain related to stimulation of nerve endings associated with obstruction of the pancreatic tractB) Fluid volume deficit related to vomiting and nasogastric tube drainageC) Knowledge deficit related to treatment regimenD) Altered nutrition: less than body requirements, related to inadequate intake associated with current anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and digestive enzyme loss4. A male client has burns over 90% of his body after an automobile accident resulting in a fire. He was trapped inside the auto and pulled out by a bystander. After several months in the hospital and over 20 surgeries, discharge planning has begun. Throughout his hospitalization the nursing staff has been aware of psychological changes the client faces after burns over a large portion of his body resulting in disfigurement. The nursing staff can best foster the clients self- esteem by:A) Adhering to a strict schedule of diet, exercise, and wound careB) Allowing him to go to physical therapy for whirlpool treatment when other clients were not in physical therapyC) Following a standardized plan of care for burn clients formulated by a world-renowned burn centerD) Allowing him to plan, assist in, and perform his own care whenever possible5. A 20-year-old client presents to the obstetrics-gynecology clinic for the first time. She tells the nurse that she is pregnant and wants to start prenatal care. After collecting some initial assessment data, the nurse measures her fundal height to be at the level of the umbilicus. The nurse estimates the fetal gestational age to be approximately:A) 10 weeksB) 16 weeksC) 20 weeksD) 30 weeks Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Monthly blood transfusions are not indicated postgastrectomy. (B) Increasing iron in the clients diet may cause irritation and will not alleviate pernicious anemia. (C) It may be necessary that the client eat small meals several times per day, but this measure has no relevance to prevention of pernicious anemia. (D)Pernicious anemia is caused by lack of Vitamin B12, and replacement therapy will be necessary because the clients stomach has been removed.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Isolation is not necessary, even in the acute phase. (B) Separate bathroom facilities are recommended. If unavailable, daily cleansing with a chloride solution is recommended. (C) Precautions continue to be necessary while the client is in the active phase of hepatitis. (D) Clothes are to be laundered separately in hot water with a chloride solution.3. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Relief of pain is the primary goal of nursing intervention because this client is experiencing acute pain. (B) Fluid volume deficit is being treated with IV fluid replacement. (C) Knowledge deficit will not be addressed at this time because a client in acute pain is not ready to learn. (D) Alteration in nutrition is the third priority after relief of pain and fluid volume deficit.4. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) A regimented schedule, allowing no flexibility, will not foster the clients self-esteem. (B) Isolating the client may only enhance his feelings of social isolation due to his disfigurement. (C) Standardized care plans must be personalized and adapted to each clients situation. (D) Allowing the client control over his care will foster his self-esteem and prepare him for life outside of the hospital.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) At 10 weeks, the fundus is located slightly above the symphysis pubis. (B) At 16 weeks, the fundus is halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus.(C) At 20 weeks, the fundus is located approximately at the umbilicus. (D) At 30 weeks, the fundal height is about 30 cm, or 10 cm above the umbilicus. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 103
Questions 1. A female client presents to the obstetric-gynecology clinic for a pregnancy test, the result which turns out to be positive. Her last menstrual period beganDecember 10, 1993. Using Ngeles rule, the nurse estimates her date of delivery to be:A) September 17, 1994B) September 10, 1994C) September 3, 1994D) August 17, 19942. A female client comes for her second prenatal visit. The nurse-midwife tells her, 'Your blood tests reveal that you do not show immunity to the German measles.'Which notation will the nurse include in her plan of care for the client? 'Will need . . .A) Rh-immune globulin at the next visit'B) Rh-immune globulin within 3 days of delivery'C) Rubella vaccine at the next visit'D) Rubella vaccine after delivery on the day of discharge'3. A female client at 37 weeks gestation has just undergone a nonstress test. The results were two fetal movements with a corresponding increase in fetal heart rate(FHR) of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds within a 20-minute period. Her results would be classified as:A) Reactive; needs follow-up contraction stress testB) Reactive; no contraction stress test requiredC) Non-reactive; needs follow-up contraction stress testD) Non-reactive; no contraction stress test required4. A female client at 36 weeks gestation has been treated successfully for premature labor for 4 weeks. She has begun having uterine contractions today and has been admitted to the labor and delivery suite. Her amniocentesis results reveal a lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2 and positive phosphatidylglycerol (PG).These lab values indicate:A) Placental maturityB) Suspected chronic asphyxiaC) Cord compressionD) Fetal lung maturity5. A primigravida with a blood type A negative is at 28 weeks gestation. Today her physician has ordered a RhoGAM injection. Which statement by the client demonstrates that more teaching is needed related to this therapy?A) 'I - m getting this shot so that my baby won - t develop antibodies against my blood, right?'B) 'I understand that if my baby is Rh positive I - ll be getting another one of these injections.'C) 'This shot should help to protect me in future pregnancies if this baby is Rh positive, like my husband.'D) 'This shot will prevent me from becoming sensitized to Rh-positive blood.' Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) According to Ngeles rule, the estimated date of delivery is calculated by adding 7 days to the date of the first day of the normal menstrual period (December10 + 7 days = December 17), and then by counting back 3 months (December 17 -3 mo = September 17). (B, C, D) These answers are incorrect.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Rh immune globulin is given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent the maternal Rh immune response. (B) Rh immune globulin is given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent the maternal Rh immune response. (C) The rubella vaccine is not given during pregnancy because of its teratogenicity. (D) Nonimmune mothers are vaccinated early in the postpartum period to prevent future infection with the rubella virus.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) A contraction stress test is unnecessary following a reactive (normal) nonstress test. (B) The results are considered reactive, indicating that the fetus is not showing distress. Therefore, a contraction stress test, which is a more in-depth test for fetal distress, is unnecessary. (C) A nonreactive test would show fewer than two fetal movements or a failure of the FHR to increase at least 15 bpm with the movements in a 20-minute period. (D) A contraction stress test should follow a nonreactive nonstress test to validate fetal distress.4. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Placental maturity is assessed by a biophysical profile. (B) L/S ratio and presence of phosphatidylglycerol are not used to determine fetal asphyxia. A biophysical profile score of6 may indicate this condition. (C) Cord compression is not reflected by the L/S ratio or presence of phosphatidylglycerol. Variable decelerations observed through electronic fetal monitoring could reflect umbilical cord compression. (D) An L/S ratio>2 and the presence of phosphatidylglycerol in amniotic fluid indicate fetal lung maturity.5. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) RhoGAM is given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent the maternal Rh immune response to fetal Rh-positive antigens. (B) If the infant is Rh positive, the mother will receive another dose postdelivery to prevent maternal sensitization. (C) Prevention of maternal sensitization will protect future pregnancies because the mothers blood will be free of antibodies against her fetus. (D) RhoGAM prevents maternal sensitization to Rh-positive blood. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
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