Created by - Jenny Clarke
PHR Exam Questions - Part 31
Questions 1. What term describes a manager who makes himself visible, being present for employees, and getting out of his office to interact with employees?A) Open door policyB) Progressive disciplineC) Active managementD) Management by walking around2. If a union wants to organize, it typically moves through five steps to the organizing process. Which one of the following is not one of the five stages of unionization of work force?A) The financingB) The campaignC) Obtaining recognitionD) The election3. All organizations need prevoyance, or planning, as a part of a manager's duty. As an HR Professional what is the primary purpose of planning?A) Directs the project team and staff to accomplish the project scopeB) Establishes groundwork for the managers to achieve the goals of the organizationC) Communicates the direction of the organizationD) Establishes groundwork for the managers to achieve their goals4. If an employer ignores stress in employees what symptom are employees likely to develop?A) De-motivationB) BurnoutC) TumorsD) Turnover5. You are a HR Professional for your organization and you're educating your staff on the Pregnancy Discrimination Act. Which one of the following statements about the Pregnancy Discrimination Act is not true?A) Pregnancy related benefits cannot be limited to married employees.B) Employers must provide the same level of health benefits for spouses of male employees as they do for spouses of female employees.C) If an employer provides any benefits to workers on leave, the employer must provide the same benefits for those on leave for pregnancy-related conditions.D) An employer is allowed to refuse to hire a pregnant woman because of the imminent time frame of the needed leave to deliver and care for the child. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: You can write comment2. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment3. Right Answer: BExplanation: You can write comment4. Right Answer: BExplanation: You can write comment5. Right Answer: DExplanation: You can write comment .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: PHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 80
Questions 1. A child receiving chemotherapeutic drugs experiences a loss of appetite directly related to the therapy. Which of the following strategies should be most effective in encouraging the child to eat?A) Provide a well-balanced diet at usual times, and restrict dessert if the child fails to eat well.B) Schedule procedures immediately after eating so that the child will not be tired or in pain at mealtime.C) Offer the child a diet with a wider variety of foods and with more seasoning than her usual diet.D) Offer the child smaller meals more frequently than usual, and include as many of her favorite foods as possible.2. The parents of a 2-year-old child are ready to begin toilet training activities with him. His parents feel he is ready to train because he is now 2 years old. What would the nurse identify as readiness in this child?A) Patience by the child when wearing soiled diapersB) Communicating the urge to defecate or urinateC) The child awakening wet from his napsD) The age at which the child - s siblings were trained3. A 5-year-old child is hospitalized for an acute illness. The nurse encourages the family to bring her favorite objects from home. What is the nurse - s rationale?A) To reduce fear of the unknownB) To keep the child calmC) To establish a trusting relationshipD) To prevent or minimize separation anxiety4. A 3-year-old child was hospitalized for acute laryngotracheobronchitis. During her hospitalization, the child was placed under an oxygen mist tent. The nurse - s frequent monitoring of the child - s temperature frightened her parents. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?A) Monitoring the temperature prevents undue chilling.B) Rapid temperature elevations can occur in children.C) Checking the temperature will prevent febrile seizures.D) Taking the child - s temperature can prevent airway obstruction.5. A school-age child with asthma is ready for discharge from the hospital. His physician has written an order to continue the theophylline given in the hospital as an oral home medication. Immediately prior to discharge, he complains of nausea and becomes irritable. His vital signs were normal except for tachycardia. What first nursing actions would be essential in this situation?A) Hold the child - s discharge for 1 hour.B) Notify the physician immediately.C) Discharge the child as the physician ordered.D) Administer an antiemetic as necessary. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Because the childs appetite is capricious at best, regular servings may be overwhelming. Praise the child for what is eaten. (B) The child will soon learn that procedures follow meals and may play with food rather than eat it to avoid or delay the procedure. (C) Young children usually do not like highly seasoned foods and may need the security of usual foods. Such a change may actually increase anorexia. (D) Small servings appear more achievable to the child, and the inclusion of favorite foods can add a sense of security.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Children experience impatience with soiled diapers when readiness for training is apparent. They often desire to be changed immediately. (B) A child must be able to use verbal or nonverbal skills to communicate needs. (C) A readiness indicator would be awaking dry from naps. (D) The age at which a sibling was toilet trained has no implications for training this child.3. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Objects from home do not reduce fear of the unknown. Children need explanations, reassurance, and preparation for the unknown. Also, parental presence can promote comfort and feelings of security. (B) A calm, relaxed, and reassuring manner will assist in calming the child. The childs objects from home will not assist in calming the child. (C) A trusting relationship is based on the quality of the nurse-client relationship. Objects from home have no impact. (D) Favorite objects from home assist in creating a familiar setting. Also, these objects may prevent or minimize separation from the childs usual routine and family support.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) The refrigerated cool mist tent creates a cool, moist environment. The child as well as bedding and clothing may become dampened. Monitoring the temperature of the child will ensure warmth and prevent chilling. (B) Only a low-grade fever is expected in laryngotracheobronchitis. (C) Febrile seizures are not expected with the low-grade fever. (D) Inflammation of the mucosal lining in the respiratory tract can cause airway obstruction. However, monitoring the childs temperature would not prevent airway obstruction.5. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Holding the childs discharge alone does not address the clients problem. (B) Nausea, tachycardia, and irritability are all symptoms of theophylline toxicity. The physician should benotified immediately so that a serum theophylline level can be ordered. Theophylline dose should be withheld until the physician is notified. (C)The child must be evaluated for theophylline toxicity before any discharge. (D) Cause of the nausea should be investigated before the administration of an antiemetic. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
PHR Exam Questions - Part 32
Questions 1. As a HR Professional you must understand the laws and regulations, which affect employee compensation. Which of the following was the first to address a minimum wage for employees?A) Portal-to-Portal ActB) Walsh-Healey Public Contracts ActC) Davis-Bacon ActD) Fair Labor Standards Act2. Which of the following types of training evolution measures whether the training had a positive impact on the bottom line?A) ResultB) ReactionC) LearningD) Behavior3. Pat is interviewing Sammy for a job in his organization. During the interview, Pat asks Sammy for a dinner date. Sammy refuses his offer, but thanks him. Pat tellsSammy that a dinner date would be beneficial to the job selection. Sammy still refuses the dinner date. Based on this conversation, Pat decides not to hire Sammy for the position. This is an example of what type of sexual harassment?A) CovertB) Quid Pro QuoC) ContingentD) Hostile Work Environment4. Which of the following requires employers to pay social security tax for employees and to withhold the tax amount from employee paychecks?A) Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)B) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)C) Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA)D) Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA)5. Lucas has asked his manager to take time off from work because of a holiday his religion celebrates. Fran agrees but tells Lucas that he will be inspecting his project work to ensure that the work is accurate and not suffering because of the requested time off. This is an example of what?A) Perpetuating past discriminationB) Religious persecution in the workforceC) Quality controlD) Disparate treatment Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment2. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment3. Right Answer: BExplanation: You can write comment4. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment5. Right Answer: DExplanation: You can write comment .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: PHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 81
Questions 1. A neonate was admitted to the hospital with projectile vomiting. According to the parents, the baby had experienced vomiting episodes after feeding for the last 2 days. A medical diagnosis of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis was made. On assessment, the infant had poor skin turgor, sunken eyeballs, dry skin, and weight loss.Identify the number-one priority nursing diagnosis.A) Fluid volume deficitB) Altered nutritionC) Altered bowel eliminationD) Anxiety2. A baby who was diagnosed with pyloric stenosis has continued to have projectile vomiting. With prolonged vomiting, the infant is prone to:A) Respiratory acidosisB) Respiratory alkalosisC) Metabolic acidosisD) Metabolic alkalosis3. Parents of young children often need anticipatory guidance from the nurse. Parents may have little knowledge regarding growth and development. Which of the following toys and activities would the nurse suggest as appropriate for a toddler?A) Cutting, pasting, string beads, music, dollsB) Mobiles, rattle, squeeze toysC) Pull-toys, large ball, dolls, sand and water play, musicD) Simple card games, puzzles, bicycle, television4. A 5-year-old child cries continually in her bed. Her parents have been unsuccessful in assisting her in expressing her feelings. Which activity should the nurse provide the child to assist her in expressing her feelings?A) Books with colorful picturesB) MusicC) Riding toysD) Puppets5. During his hospitalization, a 3-year-old child has become unusually aggressive in his play activities. His parents report this change in behavior to the primary nurse. How could the nurse explain the childs change in behavior?A) Deep-seated feelings of hostilityB) A lack of interest in socializingC) Usual behavior for this childD) A coping response Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Fluid volume deficit is the major problem. Symptoms of dehydration are evident. The effects of fluid and electrolyte balance may be life threatening.Rehydration can be accomplished effectively through IV fluids and electrolytes. (B) Vomiting may also signal a nutritional problem. However, the nutritional problem would be secondary to fluid and electrolyte disturbances. The infant may also be placed on NPO status. (C) With vomiting, a decrease in the size and number of stools is expected. (D) The infant cannot verbalize feelings of anxiety. Anxiety would not be an appropriate diagnosis.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Respiratory acidosis is the result of problematic ventilation. Plasma pH decreases, while plasma PCO2 and plasma HCO3 increase. (B) Respiratory alkalosis results from increased respiratory rate and depth. Plasma pH increases, while plasma PCO2 and plasma HCO3 decrease. (C) Metabolic acidosis occurs when there is strong acid gain in the body. Plasma pH, PCO2, and HCO3 decrease. (D) Increased risk for metabolic alkalosis is due to a loss of hydrogen ions; depletion of potassium, sodium, and chloride when vomiting occurs. Plasma pH and plasma PCO2 increase; plasma HCO3 may decrease and then increase to compensate.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) These activities are suited for the preschool-age child (35 years old). The activities are not safe for a toddler. (B) Infants (01 year) like these toys. (C) These activities provide the toddler (13 years old) with a variety of physical activities for play. (D) The toddler lacks the physical and cognitive abilities for these activities.The tasks are far better suited for the school-age child.4. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Books increase cognition, assist with fine motor skills, and augment language development. (B) Music provides auditory stimulation and large-muscle activity.(C) Riding toys provide large-muscle activity. (D) Puppets allow expression of feelings and fears that otherwise could not be directly communicated.5. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Unusually aggressive behavior does not indicate a deepseated problem. (B) A lack of social interest results in poor participation in play activities with peers.Aggression would not be an expected behavior. (C) The aggressive behavior was newly developed and not a routine behavior. (D) Play provides the child with opportunities for coping and adaptation. Aggression during the play activities would indicate a coping response. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
PHR Exam Questions - Part 33
Questions 1. As an HR Professional you must recognize, and be aware of several pieces of legislation that affects your performance as an HR Professional. Which one of the following acts used the terminology 'work now, grieve later' to describe the urgency of performing work?A) Clayton ActB) National Labor Relations ActC) Railway Labor ActD) National Industrial Recovery Act2. Sally is an HR Professional for an organization and she's working with Holly another HR Professional. Holly is concerned with effectiveness of a new policy. Sally is concerned with the efficiency of the new policy. What is the difference between effectiveness and efficiency?A) These are the same values in human resources.B) Efficiency is doing things right. Effectiveness is doing the right things.C) Efficiency is being effective when doing things. Effectiveness is doing the right things efficiently.D) Efficiency is knowing what to do. Effectiveness is doing what you know you should.3. You are a HR Professional for your organization. You and your supervisor are reviewing the EEO reporting requirements for your company to comply with the reports your firm should file. Which report is collected on odd-number of years from state and local governments?A) EEO-4 ReportB) EEO-1 ReportC) EEO-5 reportD) EEO-3 Report4. Validity is an important part of the interview process. All HR Professionals should recognize validity through the interview process. Which one of the following is not one of the four types of validity?A) Content validityB) Professional validityC) Construct validityD) Predictive validity5. Holly and Gary are HR Professionals in their organization and they're working to develop the strategic plan for their organization. Holly and Gary are using SWOT analysis to help understand the needs of human, financial, technological, capital, and other aspects of their organization. What is SWOT?A) SWOT is an analysis to define the schedule, weaknesses, opportunities, and timetable of a project endeavor.B) SWOT is an analysis to define the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats an organization may face.C) SWOT is an analysis to define the strengths, weaknesses, openness, and timeliness of an organization.D) SWOT is an analysis to define the seriousness, weaknesses, openness, and timetable of organization development. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: You can write comment2. Right Answer: BExplanation: You can write comment3. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can write comment4. Right Answer: BExplanation: You can write comment5. Right Answer: BExplanation: You can write comment .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: PHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 82
Questions 1. Following her surgery, a 5-year-old child will return to the pediatric unit with a long-arm cast. She experienced a supracondylar fracture of the humerus near the elbow. Which nursing action is most essential during the first24 hours after surgery and cast application?A) Mobilization of the childB) Discharge teachingC) Pain managementD) Assessment of neurovascular status2. A 9-month-old infant visits her pediatrician for a routine visit. A developmental assessment was initiated by the nurse. Which skill would cause the nurse to be concerned about the infants developmental progression?A) She sits briefly alone with assistance.B) She creeps and crawls.C) She pulls herself to her feet with help.D) She stands while holding onto furniture.3. Children often experience visual impairments. Refractive errors affect the child - s visual activity. The main refractive error seen in children is myopia. The nurse explains to the child - s parents that myopia may also be described as:A) CataractsB) FarsightednessC) NearsightednessD) Lazy eye4. A client is experiencing visual problems at school. She has complained of difficulty seeing the blackboard and squinting. She no longer likes to participate in physical activities such as softball. The client has displayed possible classic symptoms of which refractive error?A) AstigmatismB) HyperopiaC) MyopiaD) Amblyopia5. An 18-year-old client enters the emergency room complaining of coughing, chest tightness, dyspnea, and sputum production. On physical assessment, the nurse notes agitation, nasal flaring, tachypnea, and expiratory wheezing. These signs should alert the nurse to:A) A tension pneumothoraxB) An asthma attackC) PneumoniaD) Pulmonary embolus Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Mobilization is important but not absolutely essential. (B) Discharge teaching should be initiated prior to surgery as well as during the postoperative period. (C)Assessment and management of pain are necessary and high in priority. (D) Neurovascular status of the extremity is of primary importance. The risk of circulatory impairment exists with any cast application. This type of fracture is common in children. A high incidence of neurovascular complications exists with fractures near the elbow.2. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) The 9-month-old infant can sit alone for long periods. By the age of 6 months, many infants can pull themselves to a sitting position. (B, C, D) This skill represents normal development.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Cataracts are not considered refractive errors. Cataracts canbe described as opacity of the lens. (B)Hyperopiais the term forfarsightedness. One can see objects at a distance more clearlythan close objects. (C)Myopiais the term for nearsightedness.Objects that are close in distance are more clearly seen. (D)Lazyeye refers to strabismus or misalignment of the eyes.4. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Visual images are blurred and distorted. (B) Symptoms are headaches, burning eyes, fatigue, squinting, and difficulty reading. (C) These symptoms are classic for myopia. (D) Amblyopia is not a refractive error. It is a loss of vision in one or both eyes.5. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) A tension pneumothorax is an accumulation of air in the pleural space. Important physical assessment findings to confirm this condition include cyanosis, jugular vein distention, absent breath sounds on the affected side, distant heart sounds, and lowered blood pressure. (B) Asthma is a disorder in which there is an airflow obstruction in the bronchioles and smaller bronchi secondary to bronchospasm, swelling of mucous membranes, and increased mucus production.Physical assessment reveals some important findings: agitation, nasal flaring, tachypnea, and expiratory wheezing. (C) Pneumonia is an acute bacterial or viral infection that causes inflammation of the lung in the alveolar and interstitial tissue and results in consolidation. Specific assessment findings to confirm this condition include decreased chest expansion caused by pleuritic pain, dullness on percussion over consolidated areas, decreased breath sounds, and increased vocal fremitus. (D)A pulmonary embolus is the passage of a foreign substance (blood clot, fat, air, or amniotic fluid) into the pulmonary artery or its branches, with subsequent obstruction of blood supply to lung tissue. Specific assessment findings that confirm this condition include tachypnea, tachycardia, crackles (rales), transient friction rub, diaphoresis, edema, and cyanosis. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 83
Questions 1. The nurse is assisting a 4th-day postoperative cholecystectomy client in planning her meals for tomorrows menu. Which vitamin is the most essential in promoting tissue healing?A) Vitamin CB) Vitamin B1C) Vitamin DD) Vitamin A2. As a postoperative cholecystectomy client completes tomorrows dinner menu, the nurse knows that one of the following meal choices will best provide the essential vitamin(s) necessary for proper tissue healing?A) Liver, white rice, spinach, tossed salad, custard puddingB) Fish fillet, carrots, mashed potatoes, butterscotch puddingC) Roast chicken, gelatin with sliced fruitD) Chicken breast fillet in tomato sauce, potatoes, mustard greens, orange and strawberry slices3. A 71-year-old client fell and injured her left leg while cooking in the kitchen. Her husband calls the ambulance, and she is taken to the emergency department at a local hospital. X-ray reports confirm that she has an intertrochanteric fracture of the left femur. Her left leg will require skeletal traction initially and then surgery.The nurse knows that this type of traction will be used:A) By inserting pins to provide steady pull on the boneB) To suspend the leg in a sling without pull on the extremityC) Intermittently to place a pull over the pelvis and lower spineD) With weights at both ends of the bed to maintain pull on the upper extremity4. Pin care is a part of the care plan for a client who is in skeletal traction. When assessing the site of pin insertion, which one of the following findings would the nurse know as an indicator of normal wound healing?A) ExudateB) CrustC) EdemaD) Erythema5. A 47-year-old client comes to the emergency department complaining of moderate flank, abdominal, and testicular pain with nausea of 4 hours duration. After physical examination and obtaining the clients history, the physician suspects urethral obstruction by calculi. The nurse realizes that the physician will order which one of the following diagnostic studies to best confirm the diagnosis?A) CystoscopyB) Kidneys, ureter, bladder, x-ray of abdomenC) Intravenous pyelogram with excretory urogramD) Ureterolithotomy Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is essential in promoting wound healing and collagen formation. (B) Vitamin B1 (thiamine) maintains normal gastrointestinal (GI) functioning, oxidizes carbohydrates, and is essential for normal functioning of nervous tissue. (C) Vitamin D regulates absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the GI tract and helps prevent rickets. (D) Vitamin A is necessary for the formation and maintenance of skin and mucous membranes. It is also essential for normal growth and development of bones and teeth.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) This meal choice provides more of the vitamins A, D, and K than of vitamin C. (B) This meal choice provides more of the vitamins A, B12, and D than of vitaminC. (C) This meal choice provides more of the vitamins A, B1 (thiamine), niacin, and microminerals than of vitamin C. (D) This meal choice provides foods rich in vitamin C, which are essential in tissue healing.3. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Skeletal traction is the application of traction directly to bone with the use of pins and wires or tongs for the purpose of providing a strong, steady, continuous longitudinal pull on the bone. It is indicated for preoperative immobilization and positioning of hip and femur fractures. (B) A type of skeletal traction (balanced suspension with a Thomas splint and Pearson attachment) uses a sling to support the extremity, but it also uses weights to provide a strong, steady continuouspull on the extremity. A sling is used instead of pins. (C) Pelvic traction provides an intermittent pull over the pelvis and bone, whereas skeletal traction is continuous. Pelvic traction does not use pins. (D) Skeletal traction uses weights at the end of the bed to provide a continuous pull on long bones. Weights are not applied to both ends of the bed.4. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Exudate (moist, active drainage) is a clinical sign of wound infection. (B) Crust (dry, scaly) is part of the normal stages of wound healing and should not be removed from around the pin site. It usually sloughs off after the underlying tissue has healed. (C) Edema (swelling) is a clinical sign of wound infection. (D)Erythema (redness) is a clinical sign of wound infection.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Cystoscopy is an endoscopic procedure that uses an instrument (a cystoscope) to visualize the internal bladder and ureter structures and to capture and remove an obstructing stone. (B) Kidney, ureter, bladder x-ray is used to outline gross structural changes in the kidneys, ureter, and bladder and will determine the general location of a stone. (C) An intravenous pyelogram with excretory urogram is used to visualize the kidneys, kidney pelvis, ureters, and bladder. This procedure is used specifically to determine whether urethral obstruction is partial or complete; it shows the exact location of the stone and dilation of the ureter above the stone. (D) Ureterolithotomy is a surgical procedure in which the ureter is incised and the stone is manually removed because the stone is unable to pass through the ureter independently. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 84
Questions 1. An obstructing stone in the renal pelvis or upper ureter causes:A) Radiating pain into the urethra with labia pain experienced in females or testicular pain in malesB) Urinary frequency and dysuriaC) Severe flank and abdominal pain with nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, and pallorD) Dull, aching, back pain2. A client who has gout is most likely to form which type of renal calculi?A) Struvite stonesB) Staghorn calculiC) Uric acid stonesD) Calcium stones3. A 75-year-old client is hospitalized with pneumonia caused by gram-positive bacteria. Which one of the following best describes a gram-positive bacterial pneumonia?A) KlebsiellapneumoniaB) Pneumococcal pneumoniaC) Legionella pneumophilapneumoniaD) Escherichia colipneumonia4. The nurse caring for a client who has pneumonia, which is caused by a gram-positive bacteria, inspects her sputum. Because the clients pneumonia is caused by a gram-positive bacteria, the nurse experts to find the sputum to be:A) Bright red with streaksB) Rust coloredC) Green coloredD) Pink-tinged and frothy5. The nurse who is caring for a client with pneumonia assesses that the client has become increasingly irritable and restless. The nurse realizes that this is a result of:A) Prolonged bed restB) The client - s maintaining a semi-Fowler positionC) Cerebral hypoxiaD) IV fluids of 2.5 - 3 liters in 24 hours Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Radiating pain in the urethra in both sexes, extending into the labia in females and into the testicle or penis in the male, indicates a stone in the middle or lower segment of the ureter. (B) Urinary frequency and dysuria are caused by a stone in the terminal segment of the ureter withinthe bladder wall. (C) An obstructing stone in the renal pelvis or upper ureter causes severe flank and abdominal pain with nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, and pallor. (D) Dull and aching pain may indicate early stages of hydronephrosis. Also, a stone in the renal pelvis or upper ureter causes severe flank and abdominal pain.2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) The presence of urinary tract infection is a factor in the formation of struvite stones. (B) Staghorn calculi is the other name for struvite stones associated with urinary tract infection. (C) Clients who have gout form uric acid stones. (D) Clients who have increased urinary excretion of calcium form calcium stones.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A)Klebsiellapneumonia is caused by gram-negative bacteria. (B) Pneumococcal pneumonia is caused by gram-positive bacteria. (C)Legionella pneumophilapneumonia is a nonbacterial pneumonia. (D)E. colipneumonia is caused by gram-negative bacteria.4. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Bright red sputum with streaks is associated with pneumonia caused by gram-negative bacteria, such asKlebsiellapneumonia. (B) Pneumococcal pneumonia, caused by gram-positive bacteria, has a characteristic productive cough with green or rust-colored sputum. (C) Green-colored sputum is more characteristic ofPseudomonasthan of gram-positive bacterial pneumonia. (D) Pink-tinged and frothy sputum is more characteristic of pulmonary edema than of gram-positive bacterial pneumonia.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Maintaining bed rest helps to decrease the O2 needs of the tissues, which decreases dyspnea and workload on the respiratory system. (B) The semi-Fowler or high-Fowler position is necessary to aid in lessening pressure on the diaphragm from the abdominal organs, which facilitates comfort and easier breathing patterns. (C) Cerebral hypoxia causes the client with pneumonia to be increasingly irritable and restless and results from the client not obtaining enough O2 to meet metabolic needs. (D) Proper hydration facilitates liquefaction of mucus trapped in the bronchioles and alveoli and enhances expectoration. Unless contraindicated, a reasonable amount of IV fluids to be administered is at least 2.53 liters in a 24-hour period. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 85
Questions 1. A 22-year-old client who is being seen in the clinic for a possible asthma attack stops wheezing suddenly as the nurse is doing a lung assessment. Which one of the following nursing interventions is most important?A) Place the client in a supine position.B) Draw a blood sample for arterial blood gases.C) Start O2 at 4 L/min.D) Establish a patent airway.2. A 49-year-old obese woman has been admitted to the general surgery unit with choledocholithiasis. As the nurse is admitting her to the unit, she states, 'The doctor said I have stones that need to be removed; where are they?' The nurse knows that the best explanation for this is to tell her that:A) There are stones present in her gallbladderB) There are stones present in her kidneysC) There are stones present in her common bile ductD) There are no stones, but her gallbladder is irritated and caused her nausea, vomiting, and pain3. A 48-year-old client is being seen in her physicians office for complaints of indigestion, heartburn, right upper quadrant pain, and nausea of 4 days duration, especially after meals. The nurse realizes that these symptoms may be associated with cholecystitis and therefore would check for which specific sign during the abdominal assessment?A) Cullen - s signB) Rebound tendernessC) Murphy - s signD) Turner - s sign4. When caring for a postoperative cholecystectomy client, the nurse assesses patency and documents drainage of the T-tube. The nurse recognizes that the expected amount of drainage during the first 24 hours postoperatively is:A) 50 - 100 mLB) 200 - 300 mLC) 300 - 500 mLD) 1000 - 1200 mL5. The nurse recognizes that a client with the diagnosis of cholecystitis and cholelithiasis would expect to have stools that are:A) Clay or gray coloredB) Watery and looseC) Bright-red streakedD) Black Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) During impending respiratory failure or asthmatic complications, the client is placed in the high-Fowler position to facilitate comfort and promote optimal gas exchange. (B) Arterial blood gases are monitored in the treatment of respiratory failure during an asthma attack, but it is not an initial intervention. (C) O2 therapy is used during an asthma attack, but it is not the initial intervention. The usual prescribed amount is a cautiously low flow rate of 12 L/min. (D) Wheezing is a characteristic clinical finding during an asthma attack. If wheezing suddenlyceases, it usually indicates a complete airway obstruction and requires immediate treatment for respiratory failure or arrest.2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A)Cholelithiasisis the correct term used to describe the presence of stones in the gallbladder. (B)Nephrolithiasis,orrenal calculi,is the correct term used to describe the presence of stones in the kidney. (C)Choledocholithiasisis the correct term used to describe the presence of stones in the common bile duct. (D)Cholecystitisis the correct term used to describe inflammation of the gallbladder and can be associated with cystic duct obstructions from impacted stones.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) This sign is a faint blue discoloration around the umbilicus found in clients who have hemorrhagic pancreatitis. (B) This sign indicates areas of inflammation within the peritoneum, such as with appendicitis. It is a deep palpation technique used on a nontender area of the abdomen, and when the palpating hand is removed suddenly, the client experiences a sharp, stabbing pain at an area of peritoneal inflammation. (C) This sign is considered positive with acute cholecystitis when the client is unable to take a deep breath while the right upper quadrant is being deeply palpated. The client will elicit a sudden, sharp gasp, which means the gallbladder is acutely inflamed. (D) This is a sign of acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis and manifests as a green or purple discoloration in the flanks.4. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) During the first 24 hours after surgery, the drainage is normally 300500 mL and then decreases to about 200 mL in 24 hours during the next 34 days. (B)This range is the amount of drainage after the first 24 hours postoperatively. During the first 24 hours, it is 300-500 mL. (C) During the first 24 hours after surgery, this range is the expected amount of drainage. (D) The expected amount of drainage during the first 24 hours is 300500 mL. An output of >500 mLshould be reported to the physician, because an occlusion of some type, caused by a retained gallstone or an inflammatory process within the biliary drainage system, is evident.5. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Clients who have obstruction in the biliary tract so that bile is not released into the duodenum experience a change in stools from brown to gray or clay colored. (B) This type of stool can occur with other GI problems, such as bacterial or viral infections, and other disease problems, and is not a common finding with biliary obstructions such as cholecystitis and cholelithiasis. (C) This type of stool is usually associated with a GI or bowel problem, such as lower GI bleeding, rather than with biliary obstructions. (D) This type of stool is usually associated with a GI or bowel problem, such as upper GI bleeding, rather than with biliary obstructions. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
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