Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 158
Questions 1. One of the most reliable assessment tools for adequacy of fluid resuscitation in burned children is:A) Blood pressureB) Level of consciousnessC) Skin turgorD) Fluid intake2. A child with celiac disease is being discharged from the hospital. The mother demonstrates knowledge of nutritional needs of her child when she is able to state the foods which are included in a:A) Lactose-restricted dietB) Gluten-restricted dietC) Phenylalanine-restricted dietD) Fat-restricted diet3. An 80-year-old male client with a history of arteriosclerosis is experiencing severe pain in his left leg that started approximately 20 minutes ago. When performing the admission assessment, the nurse would expect to observe which of the following:A) Both lower extremities warm to touch with 2_pedal pulsesB) Both lower extremities cyanotic when placed in a dependent positionC) Decreased or absent pedal pulse in the left legD) The left leg warmer to touch than the right leg4. A male client is scheduled to have angiography of his left leg. The nurse needs to include which of the following when preparing the client for this procedure?A) Validate that he is not allergic to iodine or shellfish.B) Instruct him to start active range of motion of his left leg immediately following the procedure.C) Inform him that he will not be able to eat or drink anything for 4 hours after the procedure.D) Inform him that vital signs will be taken every hour for 4 hours after the procedure.5. A female client is started on warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg po bid. To adequately evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy, the nurse must know that this medication:A) Dissolves any clots already formed in the arteriesB) Prevents the conversion of prothrombin to thrombinC) Interferes with the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factorsD) Stimulates the manufacturing of platelets Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Blood pressure can remain normotensive in a state of hypovolemia. (B) Capillary refill, alterations in sensorium, and urine output are the most reliable indicators for assessing hydration. (C) Skin turgor is not a reliable indicator for assessing hydration in a burn client. (D) Fluid intake does not indicate adequacy of fluid resuscitation in a burn client.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) A lactose-restricted diet is prescribed for children with lactose intolerance or diarrhea. (B) A gluten-restricted diet is the diet for children with celiac disease. (C)A phenylalaninerestricted diet is prescribed for children with phenylketonuria. (D) A fat-restricted diet is prescribed for children with disorders of the liver, gallbladder, or pancreas.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) This statement describes a normal assessment finding of the lower extremities. (B) This assessment finding reflects problems caused by venous insufficiency.(C) Decreased or absentpedal pulses reflect a problem caused by arterial insufficiency. (D) The leg that is experiencing arterial insufficiency would be cool to touch due to the decreased circulation.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Angiography, an invasive radiographic examination, involves the injection of a contrast solution (iodine) through a catheter that has been inserted into an artery. (B) The client is kept on complete bed rest for 612 hours after the procedure. The extremity in which the catheter was inserted must be immobilized and kept straight during this time. (C) The contrast dye, iodine, is nephrotoxic. The client must be instructed to drink a large quantity of fluids to assist the kidneys in excreting this contrast media. (D) The major complication of this procedure is hemorrhage. Vital signs are assessed every 15 minutes initially for signs of bleeding.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Thrombolytic agents (e.g., streptokinase) directly activate plasminogen, dissolving fibrin deposits, which in turn dissolves clots that have already formed. (B)Heparin prevents the formation of clots by potentiating the effects of antithrombin III and the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. (C) Warfarin prevents the formation of clots by interfering with the hepatic synthesis of the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. (D) Platelets initiate the coagulation of blood by adhering to each other and the site of injury to form platelet plugs. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 159
Questions 1. A client is to be discharged from the hospital and is to continue taking warfarin 2.5 mg po bid. Which of the following should be included in her discharge teaching concerning the warfarin therapy?A) 'If you forget to take your morning dose, double the night time dose.'B) 'You should take aspirin instead of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches.'C) 'Carry a medications alert card with you at all times.'D) 'You should use a straight-edge razor when shaving your arms and legs.'2. A 40-year-old client has been admitted to the hospital with severe substernal chest pain radiating down his left arm. The nurse caring for the client establishes the following priority nursing diagnosisAlteration in comfort, pain related to:A) Increased excretion of lactic acid due to myocardial hypoxiaB) Increased blood flow through the coronary arteriesC) Decreased stimulation of the sympathetic nervous systemD) Decreased secretion of catecholamines secondary to anxiety3. Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV push q2h prn for chest pain was ordered for a client in the emergency room with severe chest pain. The nurse administering the morphine sulfate knows which of the following therapeutic actions is related to the morphine sulfate?A) Increased level of consciousnessB) Increased rate and depth of respirationsC) Increased peripheral vasodilationD) Increased perception of pain4. The nurse notes scattered crackles in both lungs and 1+ pitting edema when assessing a cardiac client. The physician is notified and orders furosemide (Lasix) 80 mg IV push stat. Which of the following diagnostic studies is monitored to assess for a major complication of this therapy?A) Serum electrolytesB) Arterial blood gasesC) Complete blood countD) 12-Lead ECG5. Prior to his discharge from the hospital, a cardiac client is started on digoxin (Lanoxin) 25 mg po qd. The nurse initiates discharge teaching. Which of the following statements by the client would validate an understanding of his medication?A) 'I would notify my physician immediately if I experience nausea, vomiting, and double vision.'B) 'I could stop taking this medication when I begin to feel better.'C) 'I should only take the medication if my heart rate is greater than 100 bpm.'D) 'I should always take this medication with an antacid.' Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Warfarin must always be taken exactly as directed. Clients should be instructed never to skip or double up on their dosage. (B) Aspirin decreases platelet aggregation, which would potentiate the effects of the coumadin. (C) Healthcare providers need to be aware of persons on warfarin therapy prior to the initiation of any diagnostic tests and/or surgery to help prevent bleeding complications. (D) An electric razor should be used to prevent accidental cutting, which can lead to bleeding.2. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Anaerobic metabolism results because the decreased blood supply to the myocardium causes a release of lactic acid. Lactic acid is an irritant to the myocardial neural receptors, producing chest pain. (B) Chest pain is caused by a decrease in the O2 supply to the myocardial cells. Treatment modalities for chest pain are aimed toward increasing the blood flow through coronary arteries. (C) Chest pain causes an increase in the stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system. This stimulation increases the heart rate and blood pressure, causing an increase in myocardial workload aggravating the chest pain. (D) Chest pain and anxiety cause increased secretion of catecholamines by stimulating the sympathetic nervous system. This stimulation increases chest pain by increasing the workload of the heart.3. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Morphine sulfate, a narcotic analgesic, causes sedation and a decrease in level of consciousness. (B) The side effects of morphine sulfate include respiratory depression. (C) Morphine sulfate causes peripheral vasodilation, which decreases afterload, producing a decrease in the myocardial workload. (D) Morphine sulfate alters the perception of pain through an unclear mechanism. This alteration promotes pain relief.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Furosemide, a potassium-depleting diuretic, inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and chloride from the loop of Henle and the distal renal tubules. Serum electrolytes are monitored for hypokalemia. (B) Severe acid-base imbalances influence the movement of potassium into and out of the cells, but arterial blood gases to not measure the serum potassium level. (C) Furosemide is a potassium-depleting diuretic. A complete blood count does not reflect potassium levels. (D)Abnormalities in potassium (both hyperkalemia and hypokalemia) are reflected in ECG changes, but these changes do not occur until the abnormality is severe.5. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) The first signs of digoxin toxicity include abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances. The physician should be notified if any of these symptoms are experienced. (B) The positive inotropic effects of digoxin increase cardiac output and result in an enhanced activity tolerance. 'Feeling better' indicates the drug is working and medication therapy must be continued. (C) Clients should be taught to take their pulse prior to taking the digoxin. If their pulse rate becomes irregular, slows significantly, or is >100 bpm the physician should be notified. (D) Antacids decrease the effectiveness of digoxin. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 160
Questions 1. When assessing a client, the nurse notes the typical skin rash seen with systemic lupus erythematosus. Which of the following descriptions correctly describes this rash?A) Small round or oval reddish brown macules scattered over the entire bodyB) Scattered clusters of macules, papules, and vesicles over the bodyC) Bright red appearance of the palmar surface of the handsD) Reddened butterfly shaped rash over the cheeks and nose2. The nurse notes multiple bruises on the arms and legs of a newly admitted client with lupus. The client states, 'I get them whenever I bump into anything.' The nurse would expect to note a decrease in which of the following laboratory tests?A) Number of plateletsB) WBC countC) Hemoglobin levelD) Number of lymphocytes3. A client is started on prednisone 2.5 mg po bid. Which of the following instructions should be included in her discharge teaching specific to this medication?A) Increase your oral intake of fluids to at least 4000 mL every day.B) Avoid contact with people who have contagious illnesses.C) Brush your teeth at least 4 times a day with a firm toothbrush.D) Immediately stop taking the prednisone if you feel depressed.4. During the assessment, the nurse observes a client scratching his skin. He has been admitted to rule out Laennecs cirrhosis of the liver. The nurse knows the pruritus is directly related to:A) A loss of phagocytic activityB) Faulty processing of bilirubinC) Enhanced detoxification of drugsD) The formation of collateral circulation5. Four days after admission for cirrhosis of the liver, the nurse observes the following when assessing a male client: increased irritability, asterixis, and changes in his speech pattern. Which of the following foods would be appropriate for his bedtime snack?A) Fresh fruitB) A milkshakeC) Saltine crackers and peanut butterD) A ham and cheese sandwich Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) The appearance of small, round or oval reddish brown macules scattered over the entire body is characteristic of rubeola. (B) The appearance of scattered clusters of macules, papules, and vesicles throughout the body is characteristic of chickenpox. (C) Palmar redness is seen in clients with cirrhosis of the liver. (D)The characteristic butterfly rash over the cheek and nose and into the scalp is seen with systemic lupus erythematosus.2. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelets, occurs in lupus and causes a decrease in blood coagulation and thrombus formation. (B) Clients with lupus will have a decrease in the WBC count decreasing their resistance to infection. (C) Clients with lupus may have a decrease in the hemoglobin level causing anemia.(D) Leukopenia, a decrease in white blood cells, is seen in lupus and decreases resistance to infection.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Fluid retention is a side effect of prednisone. The nurse should teach clients to weigh themselves daily and to observe for signs of edema. If these signs of fluid retention occur, they should notify the physician. (B) Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, suppresses the normal immune response making the client more susceptible to infections. (C) An increase in bleeding tendencies is a side effect of prednisone therapy. The nurse should teach clients to use preventive measures (i.e., electric razors and soft toothbrushes). (D) Depression and personality changes are side effects of prednisone therapy. Prednisone should never be discontinued abruptly.4. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) A loss in the phagocytic activity of the Kupffer cells occurs with cirrhosis of the liver, which increases the susceptibility to infections. (B) The faulty processing of bilirubin produces bilesalts, which are irritating to the skin. (C) The detoxification of drugs is impaired with cirrhosis of the liver. (D) Collateral circulation develops due to portal hypertension. This is manifest through the development of esophageal varices, hemorrhoids, and caput medusae.5. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) High levels of ammonia, a by-product of protein metabolism, can precipitate metabolic encephalopathy. These clients need a diet high in carbohydrates and bulk. (B) Metabolic encephalopathy of the brain associated with liver failure is precipitated by elevated ammonia levels. Ammonia is a by-product of protein metabolism. (C, D) Metabolic encephalopathy in liver failure is precipitated by elevated ammonia levels. Ammonia is a by-product of protein metabolism. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 161
Questions 1. A client with cirrhosis of the liver becomes comatose and is started on neomycin 300 mg q6h via nasogastric tube. The rationale for this therapy is to:A) Prevent systemic infectionB) Promote diuresisC) Decrease ammonia formationD) Acidify the small bowel2. The following nursing diagnosis is written for a comatose client with cirrhosis of the liver and secondary splenomegalyHigh risk for injury: Increased susceptibility to bleeding related to:A) Increased absorption of vitamin KB) Thrombocytopenia due to hypersplenismC) Diminished function of the Kupffer cellsD) Increased synthesis of the clotting factors3. A 52-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital in acute renal failure. She has been on hemodialysis for the past 2 years. Stat arterial blood gases are drawn on the client yielding the following results: pH 7.30, PCO2 51 mm Hg, HCO3, 18 mEq/L, PaO2, 84 mm Hg. The nurse would interpret these results as:A) Compensated metabolic alkalosisB) Respiratory acidosisC) Partially compensated metabolic alkalosisD) Combined respiratory and metabolic acidosis4. The nurse writes the following nursing diagnosis for a client in acute renal failure - Impaired gas exchange related to:A) Decreased red blood cell productionB) Increased levels of vitamin DC) Increased red blood cell productionD) Decreased production of renin5. A 6-year-old child returned to the surgical floor 20 hours ago after an appendectomy for a gangrenous appendix. His mother tells the nurse that he is becoming more restless and is anxious. Assessment findings indicate that the child has atelectasis. Appropriate nursing actions would include:A) Allowing the child to remain in the position of comfort, preferably semi-or high-Fowler positionB) Administering analgesics as orderedC) Having the child turn, cough, and deep breathe every 1 - 2 hoursD) Remaining with the child and keeping as calm and quiet as possible Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Neomycin is an antibiotic, but this is not the Rationale for administering it to a client in hepatic coma. (B) Diuretics and salt-free albumin are used to promote diuresis in clients with cirrhosis of the liver. (C) Neomycin destroys the bacteria in the intestines. It is the bacteria in the bowel that break down protein into ammonia. (D) Lactulose is administered to create an acid environment in the bowel. Ammonia leaves the blood and migrates to this acidic environment where it is trapped and excreted.2. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) There is a decreased absorption of vitamin K with cirrhosis of the liver. This decrease impairs blood coagulation and the formation of prothrombin. (B)Thrombocytopenia, an increased destruction of platelets, occurs secondary to hypersplenism. (C) A diminished function of the Kupffer cells occurs with cirrhosis of the liver, causing the client to become more susceptible to infections. (D) A decrease in the synthesis of fibrinogen and clotting factors VII, IX, and X occurs with cirrhosis of the liver and increases the susceptibility to bleeding.3. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Compensated metabolic alkalosis would be reflected by the following: pH within normal limit (7.357.45), PCO2 > 45 mm Hg, HCO3 >26 mEq/L. (B)Respiratory acidosis would be reflected by the following: pH < 7.35, PCO2 > 45 mm Hg, HCO3 within normal limits (2226 mEq/L). (C) Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis would be reflected by the following: pH > 7.45, PCO2 > 45 mm Hg, HCO3 > 26 mEq/L. (D) Combined respiratory and metabolicacidosis would be reflected by the following: pH < 7.35, PCO2 > 45 mm Hg, HCO3 < 22 mEq/L.4. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Red blood cell production is impaired in renal failure owing to impaired erythropoietin production. This causes a decrease in the delivery of oxygen to the tissue and impairs gas exchange. (B) The conversion of vitamin D to its physiologically active form is impaired in renal failure. (C) In renal failure, a decrease in red blood cell production occurs owing to an impaired production of erythropoietin, leading to impaired gas exchange at the cellular level. (D) The decreased production of renin in renal failure causes an increased production of aldosterone causing sodium and water retention.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Allowing the client to remain in the position of comfort will not resolve the atelectasis. This position, if left unchanged, over time may actually increase the atelectasis. (B) Analgesics will not resolve the atelectasis and may contribute to it if proper nursing actions are not taken to help resolve the atelectasis. (C) Having the client turn, cough, and deep breathe every 12 hours will aid in resolving the atelectasis. Surgery clients are at risk for postoperative respiratory complications because pulmonary function is reduced as a result of anesthesia and surgery. (D) Remaining with the client and keeping him calm and quiet will not affect the clients anxiety, restlessness, or help to resolve the atelectasis. The cause (atelectasis) needs to be treated, not the symptoms (anxiety and restlessness). .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 162
Questions 1. A client develops an intestinal obstruction postoperatively. A nasogastric tube is attached to low, intermittent suction with orders to 'Irrigate NG tube with sterile saline q1h and prn.' The rationale for using sterile saline, as opposed to using sterile water to irrigate the NG tube is:A) Water will deplete electrolytes resulting in metabolic acidosis.B) Saline will reduce the risk of severe, colicky abdominal pain during NG irrigation.C) Water is not isotonic and will increase restlessness and insomnia in the immediate postoperative period.D) Saline will increase peristalsis in the bowel.2. A 35-year-old client has returned to her room following surgery on her right femur. She has an IV of D5 in onehalf normal saline infusing at 125 mL/hr and is receiving morphine sulfate 1015 mg IM q4h prn for pain. She last voided 51/2 hours ago when she was given her preoperative medication. In monitoring and promoting return of urinary function after surgery, the nurse would:A) Provide food and fluids at the client - s requestB) Maintain IV, increasing the rate hourly until the client voidsC) Report to the surgeon if the client is unable to void within 8 hours of surgeryD) Hold morphine sulfate injections for pain until the client voids, explaining to her that morphine sulfate can cause urinary retention3. A 47-year-old male client is admitted for colon surgery. Intravenous antibiotics are begun 2 hours prior to surgery. He has no known infection. The rationale for giving antibiotics prior to surgery is to:A) Provide cathartic action within the colonB) Reduce the risk of wound infection from anaerobic bacteriaC) Relieve the client - s concern regarding possible infectionD) Reduce the risk of intraoperative fever4. A 19-month-old child is admitted to the hospital for surgical repair of patent ductus arteriosus. The child is being given digoxin. Prior to administering the medication, the nurse should:A) Not give the digoxin if the pulse is_60B) Not give the digoxin if the pulse is_100C) Take the apical pulse for a full minuteD) Monitor for visual disturbances, a side effect of digoxin5. The family member of a child scheduled for heart surgery states, 'I just don - t understand this open-heart or closed-heart business. I - m so confused! Can you help me understand it?' The nurse explains that patent ductus arteriosus repair is:A) Open-heart surgery. The child will be placed on a heart-lung machine while the surgery is being performed.B) Closed-heart surgery. It does not require that the child be placed on the heart-lung machine while the surgery is being performed.C) A pediatric version of the coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed on adults. It is an open-heart surgery.D) A pediatric version of percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty performed on adults. It is a closed-heart surgery. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Water is a hypotonic solution and will deplete electrolytes and cause metabolic acidosis when used for nasogastric irrigation. (B) Irrigating with saline does not cause abdominal discomfort. Severe, colicky abdominal pain is a symptom of intestinal obstruction. (C) Irrigating with water will not cause restlessness or insomnia in the postoperative client. Restlessness and insomnia can be emotional complications of surgery. (D) A nasogastric tube placed in the stomach is used to decompress the bowel. Irrigating with saline ensures a patent, well-functioning tube. Irrigating with saline will not increase peristalsis.2. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Provision of food and fluid promotes bowel elimination. Nutritional needs postoperatively are determined by the physician, not the client. (B) Increasing IV fluids postoperatively will not cause a client to void. Any change in rate of administration of IV fluids should be determined by the physician. (C) The postoperative client with normal kidney function who cannot void 8 hours after surgery is retaining urine. The client may need catheterization or medication. The physician must provide orders for both as necessary. (D) Although morphine sulfate can cause urinary retention, withholding pain medication will not ensure that the client will void. The client with uncontrolled pain will probably not be able to void.3. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Cathartic drugs promote evacuation of intestinal contents. (B) The client undergoing intestinal surgery is at increased risk for infection from large numbers of anaerobic bacteria that inhabit the intestines. Administering antibiotics prophylactically can reduce the clients risk for infection. (C) Antibiotics are indicated in the treatment of infections and have no effect on emotions. (D) Antipyretics are useful in the treatment of elevated temperatures. Antibiotics would have an effect on infection, which causes temperature elevation, but would not directly affect such an elevation.4. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Digoxin should not be given to adults with an apical pulse < 60 bpm. (B) Digoxin should be given to children with an apical pulse > 100 bpm. With a pulse
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 1
Questions 1. A middle-aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months. The nurse should assess the woman for other symptoms of:A) climacteric.B) menopause.C) perimenopause.D) postmenopause.2. When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, which information should a nurse recognize as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy?A) family history of strokeB) ovaries removed before age 45C) frequent hot flashes and/or night sweatsD) unexplained vaginal bleeding3. Which of the following statements, if made by the parents of a newborn, does not indicate a need for further teaching about cord care?A) 'I should put alcohol on my baby - s cord 3 - 4 times a day.'B) 'I should put the baby - s diaper on so that it covers the cord.'C) 'I should call the physician if the cord becomes dark.'D) 'I should wash my hands before and after I take care of the cord.'4. The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?A) Use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles.B) When refrigerating formula, don - t feed the baby partially used bottles after 24 hours.C) When using formula concentrate, mix two parts water and one part concentrate.D) If a portion of one bottle is left for the next feeding, go ahead and add new formula to fill it.5. The nurse is assessing the dental status of an 18-month-old child. How many teeth should the nurse expect to examine?A) 6B) 8C) 12D) 16 Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: Perimenopause refers to a period of time in which hormonal changes occur gradually, ovarian function diminishes, and menses become irregular. Perimenopause lasts approximately five years. Climacteric is a term applied to the period of life in which physiologic changes occur and result in cessation of a womans reproductive ability and lessened sexual activity in males. The term applies to both genders. Climacteric and menopause are interchangeable terms when used for females. Menopause is the period when permanent cessation of menses has occurred. Postmenopause refers to the period after the changes accompanying menopause are complete. Health Promotion and Maintenance2. Right Answer: DExplanation: Unexplained vaginal bleeding is a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy. Family history of stroke is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy. If the woman herself had a history of stroke or other blood-clotting events, hormone therapy could be contraindicated. Frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats can be relieved by hormone replacement therapy. Health Promotion and Maintenance3. Right Answer: DExplanation: Parents should be taught to wash their hands before and after providing cord care. This prevents transferring pathogens to and from the cord. Folding the diaper below the cord exposes the cord to air and allows for drying.It also prevents wet or soiled diapers from coming into contact with the cord. Current recommendations include cleaning the area around the cord 34 times a day with a cotton swab but do not include putting alcohol or other antimicrobials on the cord. It is normal for the cord to turn dark as it dries. Health Promotion andMaintenance4. Right Answer: AExplanation: Parents must be careful when warming bottles in a microwave oven because the milk can become superheated.When a microwave oven is used, the defrost setting should be chosen, and the temperature of the formula should be checked before giving it to the baby.Refrigerated, partially used bottles should be discarded after 4 hours because the baby might have introduced some pathogens into the formula. Returning the bottle to the refrigerator does not destroy pathogens. Formula concentrate and water are usually mixed in a 1:1 ratio of one part concentrate and one part water.Infants should be offered fresh formula at each feeding. Partially used bottles should not have fresh formula added to them. Pathogens can grow in partially used bottles of formula and be transferred to the new formula. Health Promotion and Maintenance5. Right Answer: CExplanation: In general, children begin dentition around 6 months of age. During the first 2 years of life, a quick guide to the number of teeth a child should have is as follows:Subtract the number 6 from the number of months in the age of the child. In this example, the child is 18 months old, so the formula is 18 6 = 12. An 18-month- old child should have approximately 12 teeth. Health Promotion and Maintenance .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 2
Questions 1. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11 - 12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?A) refusal to walkB) not pulling to a standing positionC) negative Trendelenburg signD) negative Ortolani sign2. When administering intravenous electrolyte solution, the nurse should take which of the following precautions?A) Infuse hypertonic solutions rapidly.B) Mix no more than 80 mEq of potassium per liter of fluid.C) Prevent infiltration of calcium, which causes tissue necrosis and sloughing.D) As appropriate, reevaluate the client - s digitalis dosage. He might need an increased dosage because IV calcium diminishes digitalis - s action.3. Teaching about the need to avoid foods high in potassium is most important for which client?A) a client receiving diuretic therapyB) a client with an ileostomyC) a client with metabolic alkalosisD) a client with renal disease4. What do the following ABG values indicate: pH 7.38, PO2 78 mmHg, PCO2 36mmHg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L?A) metabolic alkalosisB) homeostasisC) respiratory acidosisD) respiratory alkalosis5. The major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid are:A) potassium and chloride.B) potassium and phosphate.C) sodium and chloride.D) sodium and phosphate. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: The nurse might be concerned about developmental dysplasia of the hip if an 1112-month-old child doesnt pull to a standing position. An infant who does not walk by 15 months of age should be evaluated. Children should start walking between 1115 months of age. Trendelenberg sign is related to weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. Ortolani sign is used to identify congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip in infants. Health Promotion andMaintenance2. Right Answer: CExplanation: Preventing tissue infiltration is important to avoid tissue necrosis. Choice 1 is incorrect because hypertonic solutions should be infused cautiously and checked with the RN if there is a concern. Choice 2 is incorrect because potassium, mixed in the pharmacy per physician order, is mixed at a concentration no higher than60 mEq/L.Physiological Adaptation3. Right Answer: DExplanation: Clients with renal disease are predisposed to hyperkalemia and should avoid foods high in potassium.Choices 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect because clients receiving diuretics with ileostomy or with metabolic alkalosis are at risk for hypokalemia and should be encouraged to eat foods high in potassium. Physiological Adaptation4. Right Answer: BExplanation: These ABG values are within normal limits. Choices 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because the ABG values indicate none of these acid-base disturbances.Physiological Adaptation5. Right Answer: CExplanation: Sodium and chloride are the major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid.Physiological Adaptation .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 3
Questions 1. A client with Kawasaki disease has bilateral congestion of the conjunctivae, dry cracked lips, a strawberry tongue, and edema of the hands and feet followed by desquamation of fingers and toes. Which of the following nursing measures is most appropriate to meet the expected outcome of positive body image?A) administering immune globulin intravenouslyB) assessing the extremities for edema, redness and desquamation every 8 hoursC) explaining progression of the disease to the client and his or her familyD) assessing heart sounds and rhythm2. Which of the following is most likely to impact the body image of an infant newly diagnosed with Hemophilia?A) immobilityB) altered growth and developmentC) hemarthrosisD) altered family processes3. While undergoing fetal heart monitoring, a pregnant Native-American woman requests that a medicine woman be present in the examination room. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?A) 'I will assist you in arranging to have a medicine woman present.'B) 'We do not allow medicine women in exam rooms.'C) 'That does not make any difference in the outcome.'D) 'It is old-fashioned to believe in that.'4. All of the following should be performed when fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress except:A) increase maternal fluids.B) administer oxygen.C) decrease maternal fluids.D) turn the mother.5. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?A) variable decelerationsB) early decelerationsC) bradycardiaD) tachycardia Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: Teaching the client and family about progression of the disease includes explaining when symptoms can be expected to improve and resolve. Knowledge of the course of the disease can help them understand that no permanent disruption in physical appearance will occur that could negatively affect body image. Clients with Kawasaki disease might receive immune globulin intravenously to reduce the incidence of coronary artery lesions and aneurysms. Cardiac effects could be linked to body image, but Choice 3 is the most direct link to body image.The nurse assesses symptoms to assist in evaluation of treatment and progression of the disease. Health Promotion and Maintenance2. Right Answer: DExplanation: Altered Family Processes is a potential nursing diagnosis for the family and client with a new diagnosis of Hemophilia. Infants are aware of how their caregivers respond to their needs. Stresses can have an immediate impact on the infants development of trust and how others relate to them because of their diagnosis. The longterm effects of hemophilia can include problems related to immobility. Altered growth and development could not have developed in a newly diagnosed client.Hemarthrosis is acute bleeding into a joint space that is characteristic of hemophilia. It does not have an immediate effect on the body image of a newly diagnosed hemophiliac. Health Promotion and Maintenance3. Right Answer: AExplanation: This statement reflects cultural awareness and acceptance that receiving support from a medicine woman is important to the client. The other statements are culturally insensitive and unprofessional. Reduction of Risk Potential4. Right Answer: CExplanation: Decreasing maternal fluids is the only intervention that should not be performed when fetal distress is indicated. Reduction of Risk Potential5. Right Answer: AExplanation: Variable decelerations can be related to cord compression. The other patterns are not. Reduction of Risk Potential .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-PN Exam Questions - Part 4
Questions 1. Which of the following conditions is mammography used to detect?A) painB) tumorC) edemaD) epilepsy2. Why might breast implants interfere with mammography?A) They might cause additional discomfort.B) They are contraindications to mammography.C) They are likely to be dislodged.D) They might prevent detection of masses.3. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give a client who will be undergoing mammography?A) Be sure to use underarm deodorant.B) Do not use underarm deodorant.C) Do not eat or drink after midnight.D) Have a friend drive you home.4. Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with increased potential for bleeding?A) metastatic liver cancerB) gram-negative septicemiaC) pernicious anemiaD) iron-deficiency anemia5. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) subsequent to an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?A) increased platelet countB) increased fibrinogenC) decreased fibrin split productsD) decreased bleeding Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: Mammography is used to detect tumors or cysts in the breasts, not the other conditions. Reduction of Risk Potential2. Right Answer: DExplanation: Breast implants can prevent detection of masses. Choices 1, 2, and 3 are not ways in which breast implants interfere with mammography. Reduction of RiskPotential3. Right Answer: BExplanation: Underarm deodorant should not be used because it might cause confusing shadows on the X-ray film. There are no restrictions on food or fluid intake. No sedation is used, so the client can drive herself home. Reduction of Risk Potential4. Right Answer: CExplanation: Pernicious anemia results from vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor. This can result from inadequate dietary intake, faulty absorption from the GI tract due to a lack of secretion of intrinsic factor normally produced by gastric mucosal cells and certain disorders of the small intestine that impair absorption.The nurse should instruct the client in the need for lifelong replacement of vitamin B12, as well as the need for folic acid, rest, diet, and support. PhysiologicalAdaptation5. Right Answer: BExplanation: Effective Heparin therapy should stop the process of intravascular coagulation and result in increased availability of fibrinogen. Heparin administration interferes with thrombin-induced conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Bleeding should cease due to the increased availability of platelets and coagulation factors. PhysiologicalAdaptation .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Thu, 23 Feb 2023
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