Created by - Jenny Clarke
APHR Certification Exam Questions 2023 - Day 15
Questions 1. a planning tool that helps with future decisions (analyzing the probability of future outcomes to help lessen uncertainty)A) hidden costsB) forecastingC) recruitmentD) hr partner2. signs that predict the future of the economy -fall or rise in interest ratesA) corporate social responsibilityB) brownfield operationC) leading economic indicatorsD) lagging economic indicators3. computer software that combines information from all areas of an organization (such as finance, hr, operations, and materials), and also manages contact with people outside the organization (such as customers, suppliers, and stakeholders)A) organizational developmentB) key performance indicator (KPI)C) contract manufacturingD) Enterprise resource planning (ERP)4. group of available skilled workers (or a database of resumes that a company can se to recruit in a particular location)A) functional areaB) talent poolC) manpowerD) investment5. diagram showing reporting relationships (a graphic representation of how authority and responsibility are distributed within a company; it includes all work processes of the company)A) global organizationB) industrial relationsC) workforce analyticsD) organizational chart Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: 2. Right Answer: CExplanation: 3. Right Answer: DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: BExplanation: 5. Right Answer: DExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SHRM-CP PRACTICE EXAMS Questions with detailed explanation 2023 - UPDATED
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
SPHR Questions - Part 21
Questions 1. What of the following statements defines total rewards?A) It is the amount of pay a person earns per hour.B) It is the total amount of pay a person earns per year.C) It is the compensation a person earns for their time.D) It is the compensation and the benefits a person earns.2. According to Knowles, there are five key assumptions about how adults learn. One of the assumptions is the learner's readiness to learn. Which of the following statements is best associated with the assumption of the learner's readiness to learn?A) What I learn today will help me solve problems at my workplace tomorrow.B) I've got lots of valuable experience that I want to draw upon to help me as I learn.C) I'm ready to learn this because what I learn will help me function better in some way.D) I understand why I need to learn this.3. The management and union are proceeding to an arbitration hearing that will be conducted by an arbitration panel. Which one of the following best describes the makeup of the arbitration panel?A) There are three arbitrators all of whom must be approved to participate by the management and the union.B) There are three arbitrators, all of whom are selected by the party not bringing the grievance.C) There are three arbitrators, one selected by the management, one selected by the union, and a neutral arbitrator whom both management and union approve of.D) There are three arbitrators all of whom are randomly selected to serve from a pool of pre-approved management and union arbitrators.4. A high-involvement organization is an example of what type of OD intervention?A) StrategicB) Techno-structuralC) Human resource managementD) Human process5. Which of the following is illegal except in the construction industry?A) Common shop clauseB) Union shop clauseC) Closed shop clauseD) Agency shop clause Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: Answer option D is correct.Total rewards is the total compensation plus the total benefits a person earns.Answer option A is incorrect. This isn't a valid definition of total rewards as it is more than just hourly pay.Answer option B is incorrect. This answer describes just the salary assigned to a person.Answer option C is incorrect. Total rewards is more than just compensation, it's also the benefits received.Certification Institute, ISBN: 978-1-586-44149-4, Section III, The US HR Body of Knowledge.Chapter: Compensation and BenefitsObjective: Total Rewards Defined2. Right Answer: CExplanation: Answer option C is correct.This statement is an assumption of the learner's readiness to learn. If the assumption proves false, the learning may not occur.Answer option D is incorrect. The statement 'I understand why I need to learn this' is an assumption that the learner understands the need to know the course material.Answer option A is incorrect. The statement 'What I learn today will help me solve problems at my workplace tomorrow' is an example of the assumption of the learner's orientation to learning.Answer option B is incorrect. The statement 'I've got lots of valuable experience that I want to draw upon to help me as I learn' is an example of the assumption of the learner's experience.Reference: Professional in Human Resources Certification Guide, Sybex, ISBN: 978-0-470-43096-5. Chapter 5: Human Resource Development. Official PHR andSPHR Certification Guide, HR Certification Institute, ISBN: 978-1-586-44149-4, Section III, The US Body of Knowledge.Chapter: Core Knowledge Requirements for HR ProfessionalsObjective: Adult Learning Processes and Learning Styles3. Right Answer: CExplanation: Answer option C is correct.An arbitration hearing by a panel typically uses three arbitrators. One arbitrator is selected by the management, one by the union, and one is approved by both management and union.Answer option B is incorrect. The three arbitrators are not selected by just one party.Answer option A is incorrect. Management gets to approve one arbitrator, the union gets to approve one arbitrator, and both parties approve the neutral arbitrator.Answer option D is incorrect. The arbitrators are not randomly selected.Guide, HR Certification Institute, ISBN: 978-1-586-44149-4, Section III, The US HR Body of Knowledge.Chapter: Employee and Labor RelationsObjective: Dispute Resolution4. Right Answer: BExplanation: Answer option B is correct.Techno-structural interventions address issues of how work gets done in an organization. A high-involvement organization is one in which employees at all levels are involved in making decisions about how work is accomplished. Human-process interventions (D) are designed to build competencies at the individual level of the organization. HRM interventions (C) focus on HR processes and programs such as selection procedures or performance management that address individual employee needs. Strategic interventions (A) are used to execute changes to an organization's vision, mission, or values. See Chapter 5 for more information.Chapter: Human Resource DevelopmentObjective: Organization Development5. Right Answer: CExplanation: Answer option C is correct.The closed shop clause is illegal except in the construction industry. The closed shop clause requires that all new hires be members of the union before they are hired.Answer option D is incorrect. The agency shop clause specifies that all employees must either join the union or pay union dues if they choose not to join the union.Answer option B is incorrect. The union shop clause requires that all employees join the union within a grace period specified by the contract.Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such term as common shop clause.Chapter: Employee and Labor RelationsObjective: Union Organization .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 11
Questions 1. The primary reason that an increase in heart rate (100 bpm) detrimental to the client with a myocardial infarction (MI) is that:A) Stroke volume and blood pressure will drop proportionatelyB) Systolic ejection time will decrease, thereby decreasing cardiac outputC) Decreased contractile strength will occur due to decreased filling timeD) Decreased coronary artery perfusion due to decreased diastolic filling time will occur, which will increase ischemic damage to the myocardium2. To appropriately monitor therapy and client progress, the nurse should be aware that increased myocardial work and O2 demand will occur with which of the following?A) Positive inotropic therapyB) Negative chronotropic therapyC) Increase in balance of myocardial O2 supply and demandD) Afterload reduction therapy3. The nurse would need to monitor the serum glucose levels of a client receiving which of the following medications, owing to its effects on glycogenolysis and insulin release?A) Norepinephrine (Levophed)B) Dobutamine (Dobutrex)C) Propranolol (Inderal)D) Epinephrine (Adrenalin)4. The following medications were noted on review of the clients home medication profile. Which of the medications would most likely potentiate or elevate serum digoxin levels?A) KClB) Thyroid agentsC) QuinidineD) Theophylline5. In the client with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease, the nurse would anticipate the complication of bradycardia with occlusion of which coronary artery?A) Right coronary arteryB) Left main coronary arteryC) Circumflex coronary arteryD) Left anterior descending coronary artery Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Decreased stroke volume and blood pressure will occur secondary to decreased diastolic filling. (B) Tachycardia primarily decreases diastole; systolic time changes very little. (C) Contractility decreases owing to the decreased filling time and decreased time for fiber lengthening. (D) Decreased O2 supply due to decreased time for filling of the coronary arteriesincreases ischemia and infarct size. Tachycardia primarily robs the heart of diastolic time, which is the primary time for coronary artery filling.2. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Inotropic therapy will increase contractility, which will increase myocardial O2 demand. (B) Decreased heart rate to the point of bradycardia will increase coronary artery filling time. This should be used cautiously because tachycardia may be a compensatory mechanism to increase cardiac output. (C) The goal in the care of the MI client with angina is to maintain a balance between myocardial O2 supply and demand. (D) Decrease in systemic vascular resistance by drug therapy, such as IV nitroglycerin or nitroprusside, or intra-aortic balloon pump therapy, would decrease myocardial work and O2 demand.3. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) Norepinephrines side effects are primarily related to safe, effective care environment and include decreased peripheral perfusion and bradycardia. (B)Dobutamines side effects include increased heart rate and blood pressure, ventricular ectopy, nausea, and headache. (C) Propranolols side effects include elevated blood urea nitrogen, serum transaminase, alkaline phosphatase, and lactic dehydrogenase. (D) Epinephrine increases serum glucose levels by increasing glycogenolysis and inhibiting insulin release. Prolonged use can elevate serum lactate levels, leading to metabolic acidosis, increased urinary catecholamines, false elevation of blood urea nitrogen, and decreased coagulation time.4. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Hypokalemia can cause digoxin toxicity. Administration of KCl would prevent this. (B) Thyroid agents decrease digoxin levels. (C) Quinidine increases digoxin levels dramatically. (D) Theophylline is not noted to have an effect on digoxin levels.5. Right Answer: AExplanation: (A) Sinus bradycardia and atrioventricular (AV) heart block are usually a result of right coronary artery occlusion. The right coronary artery perfuses the sinoatrial and AV nodes in mostindividuals. (B) Occlusion of the left main coronary artery causes bundle branch blocks and premature ventricular contractions. (C)Occlusion of the circumflex artery does not cause bradycardia. (D) Sinus tachycardia occurs primarily with left anterior descending coronary artery occlusion because this form of occlusion impairs left ventricular function. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
APHR Certification Exam Questions 2023 - Part 18
Questions 1. a contract to use a property (an agreement for a person or organization to rent a property (lessee) from its owner (lessor) for a specific period of time and amount of money)A) zero-based budgetingB) delphi techniqueC) allianceD) lease2. using both internal and external resources to perform a service (a business practice in which the employees of a company work with an outside organization to perform a service)A) forecastingB) staff unitsC) co-sourcingD) human resources3. a business model that involves licensingA) shared servicesB) franchisingC) divestitureD) dedicated hr4. strategic planning method used to assess the internal and external environment in which a company operates, it strengths and weaknesses(internal) and opportunities and threats (external)A) gap analysisB) SWOT auditC) work unitD) company culture5. producing private-label goods (one company hires another to manufacture parts or goods under its label and according to its specifications)A) contract manufacturingB) low-context cultureC) workforce planningD) internal rate of return Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: 2. Right Answer: CExplanation: 3. Right Answer: BExplanation: 4. Right Answer: BExplanation: 5. Right Answer: AExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SHRM-CP PRACTICE EXAMS Questions with detailed explanation 2023 - UPDATED
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
SPHRI Certification Exam Questions 2023 - Day 72
Questions 1. The Operations department focuses on providing goods and services to the customer in an efficient, effective, timely manner. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of Operations?A) demonstrationB) A surplus of labor resultsC) Least-squares methodD) Distribution channel2. The best measure of recruiting performance isA) inventorying knowledge assets.B) Significant cultural mismatchesC) effectiveness and efficiencyD) Structured strategies3. Which of the following describes a structured system created to satisfy internal and external customers and suppliers by integrating the business environment, continuous improvement and breakthroughs with development, improvement, and maintenance cycles while changing organizational culture?A) HRISB) Project managementC) TimeD) TQM4. Organizations with a strong corporate culture generally tend toA) communicating and trainingB) possess continuity of leadership.C) A surplus of labor resultsD) identify developmental needs through feedback.5. A good vision statement has the following properties:A) Increased predictive validityB) Is future oriented and projects what the organization wants to becomeC) Evaluating the success of the change management processD) ident development opportunities Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: 2. Right Answer: CExplanation: 3. Right Answer: DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: BExplanation: 5. Right Answer: BExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SHRM-CP PRACTICE EXAMS Questions with detailed explanation 2023 - UPDATED
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
SPHRI Certification Exam Questions 2023 - Day 44
Questions 1. A defined contribution program to which employers make a fixed contribution based on the employee's compensation is known as aA) Correlational studyB) operating unit of orgC) money-purchase plan.D) Performance of hires2. Which of the following is a project planning tool that is essentially an arrow diagram identifying the critical chain of all major project events and the longest path through a project?A) Performance of hiresB) PatternedC) PERT chartD) Require present workers to work overtime3. What is the PRIMARY difference between primary stakeholders versus secondary stakeholders?A) Requires three to five years of experienceB) Planning for leadership positions versus frontline employees.C) Where the job holders are locatedD) Actions can destroy the organization.4. An organization that bases salary on the level of individual skills would be most apt to implementA) There is no cap on the maximum salary a superior performer can receiveB) merit pay systems.C) Direct ObseD) predictive5. Which of the following organizational initiatives focuses on job design and system change?A) Project managementB) Good communicationC) ProceduralD) Organizational inbreeding Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: 2. Right Answer: CExplanation: 3. Right Answer: DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: BExplanation: 5. Right Answer: CExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SHRM-CP PRACTICE EXAMS Questions with detailed explanation 2023 - UPDATED
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
APHR Certification Exam Questions 2023 - Day 16
Questions 1. employment tactics plan for managing employeesA) employee self-serviceB) organizational structureC) reduction in force (RIF)D) human capital strategies2. the degree of hierarchy (higher power distance means there are strong hierarchical relationships. low power distance means greater equality and accessibility among members of the population)A) functional areaB) forecastingC) line managementD) power distance3. people who create revenue for the organizations (work groups that conduct the major business of an organization, such as manufacturing or sales)A) cloud computingB) line managementC) functional areaD) career management4. employment tactics, plan for managing employees (methods and tools for recruiting, managing, and keeping important employees)A) vision statementB) human capital strategyC) organizational developmentD) organizational chart5. counting and measuring - giving a number to a measurement of somethingA) span of controlB) cost sharingC) quantificationD) joint venture Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: 2. Right Answer: DExplanation: 3. Right Answer: BExplanation: 4. Right Answer: BExplanation: 5. Right Answer: CExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SHRM-CP PRACTICE EXAMS Questions with detailed explanation 2023 - UPDATED
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
SPHR Questions - Part 22
Questions 1. As a Senior HR Professional, you should be familiar with non-monetary rewards that your company provides for its employees. Which of the following is an example of non-monetary reward?A) Esteem from working with other talented peopleB) Cash compensationC) On-site cafeteriaD) Satisfaction from challenging and exciting assignments2. Holly is a senior worker in her organization and she is a member of the union. Her position will be eliminated in sixty days and she will be released from the company. Rather than being unemployed, Holly asks the union to move her to a less senior position and release a junior employee. If the union agrees to this, what will this term be known as?A) DisplacementB) ReleasingC) BumpingD) Re-organization3. As an HR Professional, you must be aware of traditional corporate governance. Within corporate governance, there are typically three key stakeholders that influence decisions of the organizations. Which of the following is a key stakeholder as part of corporate governance?A) EmployeesB) ManagementC) StakeholderD) Customer4. Which EEO Report must an employer file by September 30 of each year if the employer has 100 or more employees to identify a count of employees by job category, ethnicity, race, and gender?A) EEO-3 ReportB) EEO-1 ReportC) EEO-5 ReportD) EEO-4 Report5. As an HR Professional, you are required to post an OSHA poster in a conspicuous place that is easily visible to employees. What OSHA poster lists each of the employee's rights?A) OSHA 3165 posterB) OSHA 5131 posterC) OSHA 5613 posterD) OSHA 3615 poster Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: Answer option C is correct.An on-site cafeteria is an example of a non-monetary reward.Answer option A is incorrect. Esteem from working with other talented people is an extrinsic reward.Answer option D is incorrect. An intrinsic reward is an outcome that gives satisfaction to an individual from challenging and exciting assignments. An intrinsic reward encourages employee's self esteem.Answer option B is incorrect. Cash compensation is a monetary reward for employment.Reference:'http://www.catalogs.com/info/b2b/non-monetary-rewards-in-the-workplace.html'Chapter: Compensation and BenefitsObjective: Total Rewards Defined2. Right Answer: CExplanation: Answer option C is correct.This is an example of bumping. Bumping is when a senior employee's position is being eliminated and she elects to move to a less senior position and force a less senior worker out of employment.Answer options B, A, and D are incorrect. These are'nt valid terms for this scenario. Bumping is the correct choice.Guide, HR Certification Institute, ISBN: 978-1-586-44149-4, Section III, The US HR Body of Knowledge. .Chapter: Workforce Planning and EmploymentObjective: Organization Exit/Off-Boarding Processes3. Right Answer: BExplanation: Answer option B is correct.Management is one of the three key stakeholders of corporate governance. Shareholders and the board of directors are the other two.Answer option C is incorrect. Stakeholders are people that have a vested interest in the outcome of operations or projects.Answer option D is incorrect. Customers are people that purchase goods or services from the organization.Answer option A is incorrect. Employees are part of the stakeholder group, but they are not technically part of the stakeholders of corporate governance.Reference: Professional in Human Resources Certification Study Guide, Sybex, ISBN: 978-0-470-43096-5. Chapter Four: Workforce Planning and Employment.Chapter: Business Management and StrategyObjective: Corporate Governance4. Right Answer: BExplanation: Answer option B is correct.The EEO-1 Report, also known as the Employer Information Report, must be filed by September 30 of each year for employers with 100 or more employees. It's also a requirement for federal contractors with 50 or more employees and federal contracts worth $50,000 or more.Answer option A is incorrect. The EEO-3 Report is filed every other year in the even calendar years.Answer option D is incorrect. The EEO-4 Report is filed on odd numbered years for local and state governments.Answer option C is incorrect. The EEO-5 Report is conducted biennially in the even number years for public and secondary schools.Reference: Professional in Human Resources Certification Study Guide, Sybex, ISBN: 978-0-470-43096-5. Chapter Four: Workforce Planning. Official PHR andSPHR Certification Guide, HR Certification Institute, ISBN: 978-1-586-44149-4, Section III, The US Body of Knowledge.Chapter: Workforce Planning and EmploymentObjective: Federal Employment Legislation5. Right Answer: AExplanation: Answer option A is correct.The OSHA poster with the employee's rights is OSHA poster 3165.Answer options D, B, and C are incorrect. The OSHA poster with the employee's rights is OSHA poster 3165.Certification Institute, ISBN: 978-1-586-44149-4, Section III, The US HR Body of Knowledge.Chapter: Risk Management -Objective: Risk Assessment .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: SPHR PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Jenny Clarke
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions - Part 12
Questions 1. When inspecting a cardiovascular client, the nurse notes that he needs to sit upright to breathe. This behavior is most indicative of:A) PericarditisB) AnxietyC) Congestive heart failureD) Angina2. When a client questions the nurse as to the purpose of exercise electrocardiography (ECG) in the diagnosis of cardiovascular disorders, the nurses response should be based on the fact that:A) The test provides a baseline for further testsB) The procedure simulates usual daily activity and myocardial performanceC) The client can be monitored while cardiac conditioning and heart toning are doneD) Ischemia can be diagnosed because exercise increasesO2 consumption and demand3. In assessing cardiovascular clients with progression of aortic stenosis, the nurse should be aware that there is typically:A) Decreased pulmonary blood flow and cyanosisB) Increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and pulmonary edemaC) Systemic venous engorgementD) Increased left ventricular systolic pressures and hypertrophy4. The cardiac client who exhibits the symptoms of disorientation, lethargy, and seizures may be exhibiting a toxic reaction to:A) Digoxin (Lanoxin)B) Lidocaine (Xylocaine)C) Quinidine gluconate or sulfate (Quinaglute,Quinidex)D) Nitroglycerin IV (Tridil)5. Which of the following ECG changes would be seen as a positive myocardial stress test response?A) Hyperacute T waveB) Prolongation of the PR intervalC) ST-segment depressionD) Pathological Q wave Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Pericarditis can cause dyspnea but primarily causes chest pain. (B) Anxiety can cause dyspnea resulting in SOB, yet it is not typically influenced by degree of head elevation. (C) The inability to oxygenate well without being upright is most indicative of congestive heart failure, due to alveolar drowning. (D) Angina causes primarily chest pain; any SOB associated with angina is not influenced by body position.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) The purpose of the study is not to provide a baseline for further tests. (B) The test causes an increase in O2 demand beyond that required to perform usual daily activities. (C) Monitoring does occur, but the test is not for the purpose of cardiac toning and conditioning. (D) Exercise ECG, or stress testing, is designed to elevate the peripheral and myocardial needs for O2 to evaluate the ability of the myocardium and coronary arteries to meet the additional demands.3. Right Answer: DExplanation: (A) These signs are seen in pulmonic stenosis or in response to pulmonary congestion and edema and mitral stenosis. (B) These signs are seen primarily in mitral stenosis or as a late sign in aortic stenosis after left ventricular failure. (C) These signs are seen primarily in right-sided heart valve dysfunction. (D) Left ventricular hypertrophy occurs to increase muscle mass and overcome the stenosis; left ventricular pressures increase as left ventricular volume increases owing to insufficient emptying.4. Right Answer: BExplanation: (A) Side effects of digoxin include headache, hypotension, AV block, blurred vision, and yellow-green halos. (B) Side effects of lidocaine include heart block, headache, dizziness, confusion, tremor, lethargy, and convulsions. (C) Side effects of quinidine include heart block, hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia, and respiratory depression. (D) Side effects of nitroglycerin include postural hypotension, headache, dizziness, and flushing.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: (A) Hyperacute T waves occur with hyperkalemia. (B) Prolongation of the P R interval occurs with first-degree AV block. (C) Horizontal ST-segment depression of>1 mm during exercise isdefinitely a positive criterion on the exercise ECG test. (D) Patho-logical Q waves occur with MI. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } 80% DISCOUNT: NCLEX-RN PRACTICE EXAMS
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
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